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Aug
19
answered Jesus and the cross
Aug
16
revised English Bible translations based on the Vulgate
added 213 characters in body
Aug
16
revised English Bible translations based on the Vulgate
added 1412 characters in body
Aug
15
comment Is NWT's translation of John 8:58 reasonable?
But they can't get there from John 8:58. The Greek is "I am" not "I have been." And the context beyond the verse shows that the Jewish leaders understood it as blasphemy, a claim where Jesus claimed himself to be God.
Aug
15
reviewed Approve Is NWT's translation of John 8:58 reasonable?
Aug
15
reviewed Approve Can “יָתוֹם” designate someone who has lost his father but not his mother?
Aug
14
comment Jesus and the cross
The word is plural. ἥλων is a plural case of ἥλος.
Aug
13
awarded  Nice Answer
Aug
12
reviewed No Action Needed Is the ending of the Gospel of Mark (16:9-20) original?
Aug
12
reviewed No Action Needed Why does Psalm 103:8 use the dual form of אַפַּ֣יִם (anger)?
Aug
12
reviewed No Action Needed What Is The Aorist Tense Of A Verb?
Aug
12
reviewed Approve “A god” or “God” in John 1:1?
Aug
12
answered English Bible translations based on the Vulgate
Aug
9
revised Why Moses ordered to keep virgins alive but kill all non-virgins and males in Numbers 31:17-18?
grammar
Aug
8
comment Blessed is the man who WALKS NOT or HAS NOT WALKED?
@Sarah, there is a discussion on the tense system here and here. It degenerates into a forum fight, but just those two posts have some good information.
Aug
8
comment Blessed is the man who WALKS NOT or HAS NOT WALKED?
@Sarah, Biblical Hebrew verbs don't have tense as we know it (modern Hebrew does). The same form of a verb can be past, present, or future. Let me give an example: barak can mean "he blessed," "he blesses," or even "he will bless" depending on the context. Typically, a verb in the imperfect state will be future tense, but it doesn't have to be. If I put a waw-consecutive on it, it's past tense.
Aug
5
awarded  Strunk & White
Aug
4
comment Why does God say he only revealed his name, Yahweh, to Moses?
@hannes, Abraham did know him by YHWH, that is seen many times in Genesis. A promise was given to Abraham (and one to Eve as well).
Aug
2
comment Why does God say he only revealed his name, Yahweh, to Moses?
@hannes, I quoted him for completeness as he does present a defensible answer. However, I concluded that the beth essentia answered the question better.
Aug
1
answered Was Achan's family punished along with Achan? or was he alone when punished?