11,334 reputation
33771
bio website frankluke.com
location Knoxville, IA
age 38
visits member for 2 years, 6 months
seen 19 mins ago

I am a web programmer by day (PHP) and work on sermons and teaching material in the evenings.

I attended Assemblies of God Theological Seminary in Springfield, Missouri, for a Master of Arts in Theological Studies and a Master of Divinity. I am an associate pastor at a small church in Iowa. While in seminary, my emphasis was on Old Testament studies, but Dr. Wave Nunnally introduced me to the rabbinics. Those have become a special interest as well.

I also enjoy apologetics and was a very active member of the apologetics.org forum before it went defunct.


Nov
5
reviewed Close Who purchased the field where Judas died?
Nov
5
reviewed Leave Open What implications does the expression “giving in marriage” have for the existence of sexuality after the ressurection?
Nov
5
reviewed Close Who is speaking in Song of Solomon 8:6-7?
Nov
5
reviewed Close What does “Scripture” in the NT refer to?
Nov
5
reviewed Close Where did Abel get the idea to sacrifice sheep?
Nov
5
reviewed Leave Open Which is the day described in verse Amos 8:9?
Nov
5
reviewed Leave Open Does Genesis 6:6 mean that God made a mistake?
Nov
5
reviewed Looks OK In what sense does God mock or scoff at the wicked?
Nov
5
awarded  Custodian
Oct
28
comment Is NWT's translation of John 8:58 reasonable?
@Trig, yes, I can. It is well established in Biblical studies that Jews did use the personal name of God casually (YHWH, often translated "I Am"). In fact, in seeking to put a fence around the commandment not to take his name in vain, they used different circumlocutions (Matthew even hesitates to use "Kingdom of God" preferring "Kingdom of Heaven"). When Jesus says "I am" and they understand it to be blasphemy, the only king of blasphemy that fits is a claim to be God. Claiming to be pre-existent wouldn't cut it. Jesus using the name of God as his own would qualify were it untrue.
Oct
25
comment Do the Dead Sea Scrolls argue against Aramaic primacy?
I can go with official language, but it was also widely used. Josephus records a pun used by common soldiers on the walls of Jerusalem that only makes sense in Hebrew (the Aramaic equivalents of each phrase in the pun don't sound alike).
Oct
23
comment Do the Dead Sea Scrolls argue against Aramaic primacy?
There is a plethora of evidence from the rest of Israel that Mishnaic Hebrew was widely used. For example, 13 of the 26 Bar Cochva letters are written in Hebrew. These are letters dealing with military conquests, not religious matters.
Oct
22
comment What are the evidences that Luke is written after/before the fall of Jerusalem?
I address the pre-fall evidence for Luke-Acts here.
Oct
13
awarded  Nice Answer
Oct
6
comment Revelation: Before or after AD70?
I would love to expand this to show both sides, but this came from notes of a term paper. I don't have the research notes anymore (where I explored both sides to come to this conclusion). The date wasn't the thesis, so I didn't have to explore both sides. This was a side issue. I'd have to do that research anew and time is compressed these days.
Oct
6
awarded  Good Answer
Oct
6
awarded  Nice Answer
Oct
4
answered Revelation: Before or after AD70?
Oct
1
comment Was Luke's birth narrative written in response to Marcion's version of the gospel?
More information on an early Luke-Acts can be found in Did Luke use Josephus as a Source.
Sep
28
awarded  Popular Question