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Nov
5
comment Does the original Hebrew support the NLT of Genesis 6:3?
Please see the discussion on our meta site about this answer. I have undeleted it on the benefit of the doubt and to make discussion about it earlier. That being said I think it needs to be edited to at least touch on the specifics of this verse to really fit this site.
Nov
5
revised Why did the Masoretes take away 100 (or 50) years from the age of the fathers at their first sons' dates of birth?
edit content from second answer into original post
Nov
4
reviewed Approve patristics tag wiki excerpt
Nov
4
comment Does the original Hebrew support the NLT of Genesis 6:3?
This answer only presents an argument from authority: scholars were involved in the translation ergo their translation must be good. This does not answer the actual question asked or fit the motif on this site of actually examining the text in question. This is interesting tangential information but answering this question on this site will require diving into the actual Hebrew text.
Nov
3
revised According to the original Hebrew, how did Moses's Red sea crossing look?
edit content from second answer into original post
Oct
30
awarded  Famous Question
Oct
6
comment 1 Cor 13:10 - Did Paul use “perfect” [teleios] in the sense of maturity?
Even with the edits I'm having trouble seeing how this question is really unique. Whether or not to open the related cessation can of worms or not is up to answers depending on how they think it factors into the text, but the basic question about what the word means in context seems to have been asked already. On the other hand it sounds like you have a very definite answer in mind. Perhaps what you mean to do is answer one of those other questions? If you think the extant answers are straw-men, why not posit an answer that you think isn't?
Oct
6
comment What does Paul mean by 'Completeness' in 1 Corinthians 13:8-10?
@Jas3.1 I'm not sure it's fair to call that "the cessation position". Yes this verse gets cited by a lot of cessationists in support of their position, but many others (myself included) will cringe at that handling of this verse even if they agree with the gist of the position.
Oct
5
answered Does Revelation 22:5 contradict 1 Corinthians 15:28?
Oct
4
awarded  Yearling
Oct
3
comment Was Paul arguing that Christians are the “true Temple,” in contrast The Temple?
Honestly as worded it's a little puzzling to me what you see as the alternatives here, but maybe that's for answerers to sort out anyway…
Oct
3
comment Who is the “man of lawlessness” in 2 Thess 2?
Trying to turn the passage around to make this a "confession" that Jesus wasn't God at all is a bizarrely misguided interpretation that takes the plain sense of the words and twists them to say the opposite of what they say. This is a terrible application of basic hermeneutics. Argue that the book is corrupt or the author disillusional or whatever you like — virtually anything would be more rational than taking words that specifically disprove your point and trying to pretend that they support it.
Oct
3
comment Who is the “man of lawlessness” in 2 Thess 2?
I'm quite aware of that. That's the point of the verse! But whole reason this verse makes a big deal about “Jesus Christ coming among humans” is that because Jesus was being considered as one with God then his taking on flesh — “being found in appearance as a man” — was a big deal and tantamount to a claim that the divine took on a physical form. The heresy that was common at the time that the author had in mind was one that claimed that God appearing as Jesus was not really physically human, that he was just a mirage. Hence the need for a confession that God really did take on flesh.
Oct
3
comment Who is the “man of lawlessness” in 2 Thess 2?
You should read the whole of 1st John because the very verse you quote in support of your position is, in the context of the book, making exactly the opposite claim. Confessing that Jesus came in the flesh is a meaningful test for true vs. false prophets specifically because Jesus had, in the sentences immediately prior, been labeled as God's Son and hence the divine being taking on human flesh is a big deal. The essence of the necessary confession acknowledges that Jesus was God in the flesh and hence more than human—quite the opposite of denying him being anything more than human!
Oct
1
reviewed Approve Is the translation “rib” for the Hebrew צֵלָע (*tsela*) in Genesis 2:22 justified?
Oct
1
revised 2 Corinthians 5:21 - When and how was Christ, who knew no sin, made “sin”?
remove bit off topic for BH, add back in some of the "sense" of the question previously edited out on CSE
Oct
1
comment 2 Corinthians 5:21 - When and how was Christ, who knew no sin, made “sin”?
This is a fine question but as written it has two parts. One of those parts asking for analysis for how this verse should be interpreted is very much off limits for Christianity but quite on topic for Biblical Hermeneutics. As a result I have migrated the question here to be answered. On the other hand the bit about church history and how the church fathers interpreted this is not on topic here but would be on C.SE. I would encourage you to re-post a version of this question over there that asks just the latter part (and also specifies what group of church fathers you're interested in).
Oct
1
revised 2 Corinthians 5:21 - When and how was Christ, who knew no sin, made “sin”?
remove bit off topic for BH
Sep
30
comment In Mark 5:9 does Jesus ask for a name or a title?
You can only assume what you claim to assume in this answer if you have previously assumed that nothing else the Gospel accounts tell us about Jesus knowledge about things that weren't readily observable (e.g. Philip under the fig tree or the Samaritan woman's marital history). If you've started with the presupposition that Jesus was not divine then this argument could make sense, but as far as arguing from this passage you've done nothing but beg the question based on a presumption that other accounts in the same text must be false.
Sep
18
awarded  Good Answer