Reputation
2,318
Next tag badge:
24/100 score
1/20 answers
Badges
3 25 63
Impact
~127k people reached

May
30
revised In the New Testament, What is the Origin of “Believe In” and “Believe Into”?
please don't use blockquote formatting for things that are not citations; this whole post is a question so there is no reason to call it out separately
May
30
revised In Hebrews 9:22, How Should “Almost” be Interpreted, and What does it Apply to?
please don't use blockquote formatting for things that are not citations; moved question to top so it shows in the summary, but ditched the extranious markup
May
30
reviewed Reject Does the New Testament claim to be Scripture?
May
30
revised How to separate exegesis from eisegesis in this example?
please don't use blockquote formatting for things that are not citations
May
29
reviewed Reject Why is “Elyon” Translated as “The” Most High?
May
16
awarded  Good Question
Apr
30
comment What are the many Sabbaths referred to in scripture?
@Tau I avoided getting into the specifics of that issue because ① it didn't seem like the main problem the OP was facing, ② the issue of plurals still applies as described and ③ the sabbath years are an extension of the day concept but applied to the land rather than the people. On the other hand I did mention how that passage it different. If you thing there is a better way to clarify this all please feel free to post another answer.
Apr
28
comment What are the many Sabbaths referred to in scripture?
@JonathanChell Maybe I wasn't clear enough in my answer, but as I understood the question the OP was expecting "sabbaths" to refer to holy days other than the sabbath—other feast days perhaps—as if sabbath days were some general category of holy day rather than a reference to the weekly sabbath. The only inference I intended to make is that these are all references to the same weekly Sabbath and is only plural because it sometimes referrers to more than one week.
Apr
28
comment What are the many Sabbaths referred to in scripture?
@JonathanChell I don't see any indication that it wouldn't. Most commentaries I've checked seem to just take this for granted as the obvious reading of the plural just makes sense. The OP above just seemed to be in a funk and missing the obvious (it happens to all of us). If there is more of a question here than what was posed it would seem like the burden would be on the questioner to come up with some shred of reasoning why the obvious reading doesn't fit, which I don't see in this case in my cursory review of these passages and some commentary.
Apr
28
answered What are the many Sabbaths referred to in scripture?
Apr
28
revised What are the many Sabbaths referred to in scripture?
deleted 163 characters in body
Apr
20
revised What are the arguments for and against Johannine Comma?
removed irrelevant commentary; simplified presentation of question so it's apparent how the question relates to others without dragging people that don't care into an confusion over what's being asked where
Apr
20
reviewed Leave Open What are the arguments for and against Johannine Comma?
Apr
18
revised Why is “maranatha” in 1 Cor 16:22?
this isn't about the idea of translation philosophies in general (even if > 80% of our text specific questions touch on the issue tangentially)
Apr
10
comment What language did Jesus commonly speak?
You're going to need to present more than your opinion to post answers on this site. We expect answers to build their case up from available evidence, thus presenting a case that can be examined. Sans any supporting evidence for this opinion I don't think this even qualifies as an answer. Even if the opinion turns out to be correct, raw opinion isn't the basis for posting answers here.
Apr
8
comment Why is Daniel Chapter 2:4 - 7:28 written in Aramaic?
The entire case hinges on subtleties of English that may or may even reflect the original text. And even if they are, there is nothing here to demonstrate that they mean what you are reading into them. Considering the far more likely plainer reading, it seems the burden of proof ought to lie on the one proposing a completely novel reading to demonstrate the case that the text actually leads in that direction and exclude other more attested explanations.
Apr
8
comment Why is Daniel Chapter 2:4 - 7:28 written in Aramaic?
This has all the components of a good answer on this site (well formatted, thoroughly explained, works from the text and specific context up, etc.), and yet I think you're missing the mark. The final conclusion you arrive at isn't even all that off theologically, but as far as hermeneutics go the actual process of interpretation here is … and please don't think I'm just out to bash some view I don't agree with here … but it's nonsense. It is beyond unconvincing.
Apr
8
revised Why is Daniel Chapter 2:4 - 7:28 written in Aramaic?
removed inline signature (see faq); added link for external reference
Apr
5
revised What did Satan mean, when he replied to God, “Skin for Skin”?
in English most punctuation is followed by a space, and commas are not followed by capitals
Apr
4
reviewed Needs Improvement Col. 1:27: What is the meaning of “this mystery among the Gentiles, which is Christ in you, the hope of glory”?