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Apr
4
reviewed Needs Improvement John 16:12 - What were the “many things”?
Apr
4
reviewed Needs Improvement What does the phrase "ἐγὼ ἐν τῷ πατρὶ καὶ ὁ πατὴρ ἐν ἐμοί ἐστιν” mean in John 10:38 as well as John 14:10?
Apr
4
reviewed Satisfactory What does the Greek word κύριος mean in 1 Cor. 12:3?
Apr
4
reviewed Needs Improvement Shema and Psalms 110: Is Mark making a case for Jesus' divinity?
Apr
3
revised How can the flight to Egypt in Matthew 2:15 be a fulfillment of Hosea 11:1?
deleted 222 characters in body
Mar
30
comment Is the use of the smallest possible example meant to indicate a complete absence of faith in Jesus sayings related to mustard seeds?
@PaulDean I've tweaked the close reason here as I think the previous one was miss-applied, but it seems this is largely duplicated elsewhere. Perhaps if there is and angle you think isn't being addressed by the other questions you could edit this one to be more clearly focused on the aspect that is unique to this question and we could re-open it.
Mar
30
comment Is the use of the smallest possible example meant to indicate a complete absence of faith in Jesus sayings related to mustard seeds?
@Tau The over-dramatization of the normal work-flow for handling questions isn't really necessary. This has not "descended into a systematic theology discussion" at all. It got closed. Closing questions that have scope issues is normal and the normal response would be to figure out a way to fix them. The close reason is a stock thing and not phrased for this specific question. In this case I think it might have been miss-applied, but it's not hard to see where the original title of this question set off the wrong bells in people's minds.
Mar
30
revised Is the use of the smallest possible example meant to indicate a complete absence of faith in Jesus sayings related to mustard seeds?
added 83 characters in body; edited tags; edited title
Mar
29
awarded  Nice Answer
Mar
29
revised Which is considered more reliable about Jesus' words, Mark or Q?
fix spelling mistake and clean up a few details
Mar
28
comment Why is part of Luke 9:55-56 omitted in some Bible translations?
This is not only wrong, it is amusingly so since the alleged omission would actually be evidence for rather than against that understanding. The committee behind the ESV in particular supports that theological position, the suggestion that they would leave it out for theological reasons is amusingly misguided. If you really want to postulate this answer, I recommend at least dealing with the manuscript issues involved and them building your argument for why it must come down to this on top of actual facts.
Mar
28
comment Who were the Hellenistic and Hebraic Jews of Acts 6:1?
We expect a bit more than this of answers. Care to edit and make this a full answer?
Mar
27
comment Why do translations use “wild ox”?
It seems to me the part of this question not well covered by the other question is actually more of an English language question than a hermeneutic one. "Bull" for example has gender specific connotations, "cow" and "cattle" don't come across right at all and the range of usage covered by "ox" seems to vary considerably by locale, but generally does include the thing being talked about. Whether there is a term that is unequivocally better and whether "ox" is limited in the way you think of it seems like an matter of English usage more that a textual problem.
Mar
24
revised What is the usage in Psalm 23 of “through” the valley of the shadow of death?
edited title
Mar
24
comment Can the term “eisegesis” apply to the interpretation of Old Testament passages as prophecies specifically of Jesus?
@Joseph This isn't a passage specific question, it's about terminology used in connection with the field of hermeneutics. I don't see a problem with that in general (see most of the stuff in the hermeneutical-approaches tag, and related meta posts (e.g. this one and this one, etc.).
Mar
24
revised Can the term “eisegesis” apply to the interpretation of Old Testament passages as prophecies specifically of Jesus?
retag / title
Mar
20
revised How convincing were the proofs of the resurrection in Acts 1:3?
fix issue with markdown (was not bolding something without a space after the closing ** bold indicator)
Mar
20
revised Circumcision “reversal” in 1 Corinthians
attempt to make quotes behave
Mar
20
comment How convincing were the proofs of the resurrection in Acts 1:3?
I apologize if my comments have come across as harsh. I'm not trying to rag on you and I don't speak Greek myself. I'm out of my depth here too but I got at least this far using readily available English resources. You've hit a pet peeve of mine though—and that is trying to gloss over translation issues as if words can only have one meaning and one possible corresponding word in another language. I'm a strong advocate for accurately translating Scripture taking as few liberties in diction as possible, but being bilingual I know that this is hard (and more complex than this post indicates).
Mar
20
comment How convincing were the proofs of the resurrection in Acts 1:3?
@DickHarfield The accusation is strongly implied that the KJV inserted a word that "wasn't there" in the original (scare quotes because that's much harder to demonstrate than it is to say), went against the king and didn't live up to their own translation philosophy. The case you make for this from the actual text is completely unconvincing, esp. as you use an interlinear that differs in its choice of root parsing from almost every other one I've ever seen. I don't think you can reasonably expect to answer this question without actually examining the semantic range of meaning of τεκμηρίοις.