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May
22
comment The grammatical tense of the verb “judged” in 1Peter 4:6
3) Besides, I don’t think that the moment of regeneration, that is, the point, at which a person becomes a God-born child, necessarily takes place at the time when that person is being baptized in the water. However, I do believe that regeneration happens at the moment when a person believes, opens his heart to Jesus (prayer), and the Spirit of God (Rom. 8:9) – which is also the Spirit of Christ (Rom. 8:9), and is also called Spirit of adoption or sonship (Rom. 8:15) – enters into him and starts living in him. ↙
May
22
comment The grammatical tense of the verb “judged” in 1Peter 4:6
2) there will be no more sea). The water of baptism is associated with the death and termination of our old natural man (like in Rom. 6:3-4), while the living water is associated with life and the birth of our new man. The former one deals with something negative, while the latter one does something positive. The former one is for “external use” – a person is either immersed into it, washed by it or sprinkled by it, while the latter one is exclusively for “internal use” – one has to drink of it in order to profit from it.↙
May
22
comment The grammatical tense of the verb “judged” in 1Peter 4:6
1) @Joseph: "thus the imagery of baptism. The physical illustration is water, but the spiritual is "living water" – Well, I would take issue here with your view on regeneration, baptism and baptism imagery. You seem to draw no distinction between the baptismal water and the living water, while to me they are quite different. The former one is hardly ever spoken of as flowing, while the latter one is almost always spoken of as flowing – like in John 4:14, 7:39, Rev. 22:1 (we know that in eternity future there will be the river of water of life flowing from the throne of God, but ↙
May
21
comment The grammatical tense of the verb “judged” in 1Peter 4:6
2) This phrase, in fact, was very common among Jews, and the physical sense in this phrase looks to me more plausible than spiritual - it is rather unlikely that Jews would imply spiritual sense in it as such concepts like "regenerated by the spirit", "born of the Spirit" or "dead in the spirit" were quite unclear and unfamiliar to them as we can tell from Nicodemus' talk to Jesus (John 3:6-10)
May
21
comment The grammatical tense of the verb “judged” in 1Peter 4:6
1) @Joseph: "Please see Acts 10:40-42, which is repeated in 2 Tim 4:1. Both passages refer to the judgment, which is yet future" - I still don't understand the reason why the expression "judge both the living and the dead" in those passages should not be interpreted in the physical sense. To me, "both the living and the dead" implies the whole humanity - consisting of those who have already passed away and those who are still living. For sure, at the time when God's judgement starts there will still be some people physically alive, hence, we have "both living and the dead". ↙
May
20
comment The grammatical tense of the verb “judged” in 1Peter 4:6
3) and the third time he uses this word (1st Peter 4:5), he does it in the common expression ("Judge of both the living and the dead") that, if I am not wrong, is always used in the Scriptures only in the physical sense. It's not that I deny the spiritual interpretation here flat, I just need to be given (shown) a stronger basis for that.
May
20
comment The grammatical tense of the verb “judged” in 1Peter 4:6
2) the disciple was going to bury his father only because of his father's poor spiritual condition and not because of his poor physical state). The second "dead" can also be interpreted in both senses. In 1st Peter 4:4-6, however, I don't see at the moment such a strong basis for such a drastic switch of the sense of the word. In fact, there is even quite a strong basis for retaining the physical sense of the word: the previous two times that he has used the word "dead" in this epistle are all in physical sense, ↙
May
20
comment The grammatical tense of the verb “judged” in 1Peter 4:6
1) "what did Jesus mean when he said to the disciples "let the dead bury the dead" (Matt 8:22)? It is not bad hermeneutics to say that Jesus was using "dead" in both the spiritual sense and the physical sense" - In case of Matt 8:22 the very phrase "let the dead bury the dead" and its context give us a very strong basis to interpret the first "dead" in a spiritual sense (as physically dead people can't perform an act of burying) and the second "dead" in physical (it is highly unlikely that ↙
May
20
comment The grammatical tense of the verb “judged” in 1Peter 4:6
2) Plus, the previous two times, in the same epistle, when Peter is using the word νέκρος ("dead"), he is definitely using that word in the physical sense: "...the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead" (1st Peter 1:3), "...God, that raised him up from the dead" (1st Peter 1:21). Good hermeneutics would be not to attach two different meanings to two same words used by the same author in the same epistle. I am afraid a strong argument is needed to support the idea that in 1st Peter 4:4-6 Peter suddenly switches from using the physical sense of the word to the spiritual one.
May
20
comment The grammatical tense of the verb “judged” in 1Peter 4:6
1) Thanks for your answer, but I am a bit bothered here. You said: "the idea here is that all men are born dead in their spirit...", so you are stating that when Peter was saying "Him, who is ready to judge the living and the dead", he meant the spiritual sense of the word ("dead in spirit"), rather than the physical sense ("physically dead"). However, phrases like "He will judge the living and the dead" or "He is the judge of the living and the dead" are quite common in the Scripture - they are almost like slang in koine - and they always refer to physical death.
May
19
comment What are the earliest dated Syriac manuscripts of the Bible?
@konwayk: "Let me give you a website - aent.org/ntbomb.htm" - This link is just amazing! Thank you konwayk for sharing it!
May
19
revised The grammatical tense of the verb “judged” in 1Peter 4:6
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May
19
comment The grammatical tense of the verb “judged” in 1Peter 4:6
@H3br3wHamm3r81: "Can you share from which Bible "not in English" you encountered your latter translation?" - Sure. It's Russian Synodal Bible: ru.wikisource.org/wiki/…
May
19
asked The grammatical tense of the verb “judged” in 1Peter 4:6
Apr
18
comment Does the woman in Revelation 12 go down to the earth from the heaven?
"John is doing his best to describe 21st century events" - Do you insist on the century being exactly the 21st one?
Apr
17
accepted Interpretation of the dead ones in 1 Peter 4:6?
Apr
2
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Mar
27
comment Why does the Bible say that Abraham sacrificed his “only-begotten son”?
"In much the same way, Adam is called the son of God, and Jesus is called the "only begotten Son of God". Jesus is called the second Adam" - The Only begotten Son of God existed even before He was incarnated and named Jesus. So, instead of saying that Jesus was called the "only begotten son of God", it is better to say that the Only begotten Son of God was named Jesus after His incarnation. Plus, in His divinity He still remains the Only Begotten Son of God and no one else holds this title.
Mar
27
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Mar
25
awarded  Notable Question