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Jun
23
asked Why would a copyist enter the author's name in Revelation 21:2?
Jun
23
asked How many future resurrections are there in the New Testament?
Jun
23
comment How is the New World Translation's usage of “Jehovah” controversial?
Good translation is considered to be the one that saves as many possible meanings and connotations in the translation as there are in the original text. Sometimes, that, of course, is impossible. However, in case with the New World translation in many cases it was more than possible, yet the translators chose to render them as having only one possible meaning (using "Jehovah" to render the Greek κύριος is one such case in point). In the team of translators that I used to work before that would be considered highly unprofessional.
Jun
22
comment How do we reconcile the morality of Deuteronomy 5:9 with 24:16 regarding punishment of children for their father's crime?
The upper passage is about how God acts, whose ways and acts are always moral by definition since He is the Creator of everything. The lower passage is the standard of morality set up for humans by God that they should follow in dealing with each other. The upper passage is about how Creator deals with His creatures (humans). The lower passage is about how creatures should deal with each other. Creator does have the right to end His creation at any time, in any manner, without any explanation. Creature, however, does not have the right to do so to another creature.
Jun
20
asked Acts 23:6: Were Sadducces different in their outward apparel from the Pharisees?
Jun
20
comment Is Paul speaking with sarcasm in Acts 24:21?
Ah! I see. It's clear now. Thank you.
Jun
20
comment Is Paul speaking with sarcasm in Acts 24:21?
Can you, please, elaborate a bit? I am a bit confused. I mean, if I a person is in the court and says something about his own beliefs to the court, and then it turns out that the court doesn't happen to see eye to eye with each other about those beliefs of his, so they began to argue, and that stops the meeting, I am a bit reluctant then to put the whole blame for this dissension on that person. In fact, I would even say that it is a case of the court not being professional enough.
Jun
19
accepted Is Paul speaking with sarcasm in Acts 24:21?
Jun
19
comment Is Paul speaking with sarcasm in Acts 24:21?
Thanks for such a broad answer. "He freely admits that his actions caused a division of the house in that trial and ended proceedings" - Was that Paul's fault that Sanhedrin got divided at that point?
Jun
17
accepted Does “Thou hast said”equate to “yes”?
Jun
17
comment Why is Jer 10:11 written in Aramaic?
Can you, please, explain to me (or give a link to some source explaining it) how we know that it was written in Aramaic in the first place?
Jun
15
asked Does “Thou hast said”equate to “yes”?
Jun
14
comment When James and Jude use κύριος is their meaning limited to “master”?
@H3br3wHamm3r81 - I see. Thank you.
Jun
14
comment When James and Jude use κύριος is their meaning limited to “master”?
@H3br3wHamm3r81 - I don't have anything particular in mind. It's just that your point about possessive pronouns, which, as you rightly said, don't go along well with Tetragrammaton, could only be a 100% reliable method if we knew for sure that ALL instances of Kyrios in the N.T. were either used in the sense of "master" (owner, possessor) or as a means of rendering Tetragrammaton. However, we don't have such surety.
Jun
14
comment When James and Jude use κύριος is their meaning limited to “master”?
@H3br3wHamm3r81 - "Here's Constantine Tischendorf's notes" - Thanks, but unfortunately I don't have those notes with me. Is he talking there about Codex Sinaiticus?
Jun
14
comment When James and Jude use κύριος is their meaning limited to “master”?
@H3br3wHamm3r81 - "That is why κύριος is used for the Tetragrammaton in the LXX, and that is why the scope is so narrow" - The fact that translators used κύριος for rendering Tetragrammaton in the LXX does not at all mean that they could not have also used κύριος as another means of referencing to God. The translators' laxation in standards that you are talking about only proves it. Therefore, I think the answer to this question shouldn't be kept strictly within the considerations of Tetragrammaton.
Jun
14
comment When James and Jude use κύριος is their meaning limited to “master”?
Which manuscripts use θεός in that verse?
Jun
14
comment When James and Jude use κύριος is their meaning limited to “master”?
Jon, perhaps, I am missing something here, but is Κύριος in Jude 1:5 not a clear reference to God?! ("I will therefore put you in remembrance, though ye once knew this, how that the Lord, having saved the people out of the land of Egypt, afterward destroyed them that believed not")
Jun
14
comment When James and Jude use κύριος is their meaning limited to “master”?
"Certainly there are some instances where κύριος is being used as the equivalent to the Tetragrammaton יהוה, but these are the minority. Paulos certainly does not always (nor even mostly) use κύριος as an equivalent to the Tetragrammaton יהוה" - I a bit confused. Why necessarily narrow the scope of the question down to Tetragrammaton? It looks to me that the scope of OP's question is defined by the word "God", not just by one of God's names. So, in this case, "our Lord" can really mean and be equated to "our God" as using possessive pronouns with "God" (θεός) is absolutely correct in Greek.
Jun
11
asked Did Pilate know three languages?