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seen Mar 6 '13 at 4:14

I like to split hairs.


May
12
comment What does “meek” mean in Matthew 5:5?
@Kazark The English word, 'friend'. Liddell and Scott mention this as well, though they give the Gothic cognate, not the English one (s.v. πρᾶος, fin.). Pokorny traces both, along with other words in other families, to an Indo-European root *prāi- (*prī- in AHD's IE dictionary). For pr- being related to fr-, see Grimm's Law.
May
11
comment Daniel 8:15-27 :“… Kingdom of greece …”
'Yavan' (יון or יוון) is still the name for Greece today in modern Hebrew.
May
4
comment Brothers *and sisters* in modern translations
@swasheck This essay says some relevant things on the matter that might be of interest. From what I understand I'd say that while for our culture it may make sense in certain places to translate ἀνήρ gender-neutrally, i.e. where there is no special reason the speaker should be referring to a male, I suspect that when the Greek was written a male word was intended (even where maleness was not, in our eyes, necessary to the sense of what was being said).
May
4
comment Brothers *and sisters* in modern translations
@Kazark I shouldn't think so. In principle Newspeak is about conventions of language imposed to limit thought, while PC speech, as I understand it, is about perceiving places in English where conventions of language are believed to already be limiting thought, and uprooting them.
May
4
comment Brothers *and sisters* in modern translations
@swasheck Right, the Romans passage is ambiguous as to whether women would be included or not (ordinary Greek would not specify). As for ἀνήρ it specifically means a male person; if it could be a human generally (I don't deny it might be possible) it'd be rare. (cf this page showing NT translations of the word in context). The Greek word used to mean a man or human generally, regardless of gender, is ἄνθρωπος (cf the same site on ἄνθρωπος).
Apr
28
comment Did someone really name their son Fool?
In cultures like ours it's preferred to give people names with noble or auspicious meanings, but this is not universally the case — in some places and at some times it has been the practice for people to have less positive names. Roman cognomens, though not given names, were often like this (e.g. Claudius 'lame', or Naso 'large-nosed'). In some cultures at least one reason given is to make evil spirits less interested in the child.
Apr
12
comment Why does the King James have “turtle” in Song of Solomon 2:12?
@swasheck Yes, but not "Old English", just old(er) English--Old English (with a capital Old) is specifically a stage of English that ended about six hundred years before the KJV was written.
Mar
30
comment Did Jesus wear pants?
Maybe more an 'anatopism' than an 'anachronism' - there were pants back then after all (on the Latin-speaking end of the empire they were called bracae or braccae) but they were almost certainly more common among the Germanic and Celtic peoples than the people of the Mediterranean.
Feb
8
comment Why pray, “lead us not into temptation”?
@Monica (Greek aside - I don't think that addressed what you meant - yes, 'lead' is a verb with strong implications, but are we to suggest that he's not the one in charge?)
Feb
8
comment Why pray, “lead us not into temptation”?
@MonicaCellio The Greek word used here is "εἰσενέγκῃς", whose dictionary form is εἰσφέρω. That word is made up of elements meaning literally 'carry into'; if what I understand the usual root for 'lead' is was used, it would be εἰσάγω. But my Greek isn't strong enough to say whether the difference in roots is meaningful or just a quirk of idiom—maybe make a separate question for this?
Jan
11
comment Misleading “but” in Matthew 5:22 KJV?
@Jon My understanding is δε is used before consonants and δ (usually with an apostrophe, δ') before vowels.
Jan
5
comment Why is Moses' reference to God's promise in Exodus 32 effective?
Hmm... does omnipotence have a sense of 'wasted effort'? (Indeed, Romans 9:18-24, etc., suggests that the potter creates some vessels to destroy them.)
Dec
12
comment What is the third heaven that Paul mentions in 2 Corinthians 12:2?
Background (mostly based on non-canonical sources): en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Third_Heaven
Dec
8
comment Does Paul command the Corinthians to remain unmarried?
@Peter Refactored the opening a bit.
Dec
8
comment Does Paul command the Corinthians to remain unmarried?
@Peter Actually wanted to cut that out altogether as I mainly wanted it for the hedging, not the content itself. Will do that.
Dec
1
comment When did Jesus change his view on preaching to Gentiles?
This was prompted by a comment on my answer to "Does Jesus refer to aliens in John 10:16?"
Dec
1
comment Does Jesus refer to aliens in John 10:16?
@Jon Thanks for the +1 - I had a sort of comment on whether Jesus meant Gentiles here, but it turned into a question of its own.
Nov
30
comment Does Jesus refer to aliens in John 10:16?
Haha. I'll bite :p
Nov
26
comment What hermeneutical approach does Hebrews use on the Old Testament
I think in some places certainly the NT authors may have used OT language the way we might use Shakespeare or another author today--not necessarily as proof of our assertions, but as familiar language to couch them in. (Probably not in this case, though.)
Nov
26
comment What hermeneutical approach does Hebrews use on the Old Testament
I'm not sure I understand the discrepancy you're seeing here; to me it looks like the statements are not inconsistent. If Psalm 2 is about the king God appointed, and calls that king his son, what is wrong with saying in one place that he was appointed by God, and in another place that that he is God's son? Can you clarify?