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seen Mar 6 '13 at 4:14

I like to split hairs.


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May
12
comment What does “meek” mean in Matthew 5:5?
@Kazark The English word, 'friend'. Liddell and Scott mention this as well, though they give the Gothic cognate, not the English one (s.v. πρᾶος, fin.). Pokorny traces both, along with other words in other families, to an Indo-European root *prāi- (*prī- in AHD's IE dictionary). For pr- being related to fr-, see Grimm's Law.
May
11
comment Daniel 8:15-27 :“… Kingdom of greece …”
'Yavan' (יון or יוון) is still the name for Greece today in modern Hebrew.
May
4
comment Brothers *and sisters* in modern translations
@swasheck This essay says some relevant things on the matter that might be of interest. From what I understand I'd say that while for our culture it may make sense in certain places to translate ἀνήρ gender-neutrally, i.e. where there is no special reason the speaker should be referring to a male, I suspect that when the Greek was written a male word was intended (even where maleness was not, in our eyes, necessary to the sense of what was being said).
May
4
comment Brothers *and sisters* in modern translations
@Kazark I shouldn't think so. In principle Newspeak is about conventions of language imposed to limit thought, while PC speech, as I understand it, is about perceiving places in English where conventions of language are believed to already be limiting thought, and uprooting them.
May
4
comment Brothers *and sisters* in modern translations
@swasheck Right, the Romans passage is ambiguous as to whether women would be included or not (ordinary Greek would not specify). As for ἀνήρ it specifically means a male person; if it could be a human generally (I don't deny it might be possible) it'd be rare. (cf this page showing NT translations of the word in context). The Greek word used to mean a man or human generally, regardless of gender, is ἄνθρωπος (cf the same site on ἄνθρωπος).
May
3
answered Brothers *and sisters* in modern translations
Apr
28
comment Did someone really name their son Fool?
In cultures like ours it's preferred to give people names with noble or auspicious meanings, but this is not universally the case — in some places and at some times it has been the practice for people to have less positive names. Roman cognomens, though not given names, were often like this (e.g. Claudius 'lame', or Naso 'large-nosed'). In some cultures at least one reason given is to make evil spirits less interested in the child.
Apr
12
comment Why does the King James have “turtle” in Song of Solomon 2:12?
@swasheck Yes, but not "Old English", just old(er) English--Old English (with a capital Old) is specifically a stage of English that ended about six hundred years before the KJV was written.
Mar
30
comment Did Jesus wear pants?
Maybe more an 'anatopism' than an 'anachronism' - there were pants back then after all (on the Latin-speaking end of the empire they were called bracae or braccae) but they were almost certainly more common among the Germanic and Celtic peoples than the people of the Mediterranean.
Feb
8
comment Why pray, “lead us not into temptation”?
@Monica (Greek aside - I don't think that addressed what you meant - yes, 'lead' is a verb with strong implications, but are we to suggest that he's not the one in charge?)