Radz Matthew Co Brown
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Jun
29
revised Is Revelation 3:14 saying that Christ was created by God?
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Jun
29
revised Is Revelation 3:14 saying that Christ was created by God?
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Jun
29
revised Is Revelation 3:14 saying that Christ was created by God?
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Jun
28
comment Is Revelation 3:14 saying that Christ was created by God?
@HeKS, The Greek word ἀρχή (arche) means "primacy in rank" (Albert Barnes, Thayer).Hence, the translation "ruler",(NIV,CEB,CJB,NLT,TNIV)"head" (BBE,WEB) and "chief" (YLT) in Revelation 3:14. The Greek word ἀρχὴν (archen) also means "domain" (Jude 1:6) and "rule" (1 Corinthians 15:24).In Proverbs 8:22 (LXX),it literally reads: " The LORD created me the head (ἀρχὴv - archen) of his ways (works)..." This shows that Christ was not created into existence but rather, he was appointed a ruler over all things.
Jun
28
revised Is Revelation 3:14 saying that Christ was created by God?
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Jun
26
revised What does Peter mean by “partakers of the divine Nature”
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Apr
4
revised What does Peter mean by “partakers of the divine Nature”
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Apr
4
revised What does Peter mean by “partakers of the divine Nature”
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Apr
4
revised What does Peter mean by “partakers of the divine Nature”
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Apr
4
answered What does Peter mean by “partakers of the divine Nature”
Mar
31
revised What does Peter mean by “partakers of the divine Nature”
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Mar
28
accepted What does the Greek word κύριος mean in 1 Cor. 12:3?
Mar
23
comment Why is the Greek word Θεὸς in John 1:1c treated as a proper noun in English Translation?
@Susan, Thanks for your response.I have learned a lot.
Mar
21
comment Why is the Greek word Θεὸς in John 1:1c treated as a proper noun in English Translation?
@Susan, In what sense it is 'definite'? Like the 'ton theon' in John 1:1b?
Mar
21
revised Why is the Greek word Θεὸς in John 1:1c treated as a proper noun in English Translation?
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Mar
21
comment Why is the Greek word Θεὸς in John 1:1c treated as a proper noun in English Translation?
@Susan, I am specifically asking why the Greek word Θεὸς in John 1:1c treated as a "proper noun" (if the Greek is qualitative in sense) in English Translation? The reason i asked is that i don't really know anything scholarly on this yet.
Mar
21
asked Why is the Greek word Θεὸς in John 1:1c treated as a proper noun in English Translation?
Mar
2
awarded  Autobiographer
Mar
2
accepted What does the phrase "ἐγὼ ἐν τῷ πατρὶ καὶ ὁ πατὴρ ἐν ἐμοί ἐστιν” mean in John 10:38 as well as John 14:10?
Feb
28
answered What does μονογενὴς Θεὸς means in John 1:18?