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Aug
19
awarded  Popular Question
Jul
28
comment How to interpret John 2:10
So basically I am an amateur hermeneutics that try to understand what bible "originally" mean WITHOUT having to fully understand greek and hebrew. I think 90% of christians are like me to an extend.
Jul
28
comment How to interpret John 2:10
To make things even more complicated, english is not my native language and "they might have drunk freely" could indeed mean being drunk. Indonesian translation has a foot note that says it DOES NOT mean drunk and well, I am tracing it all the way.
Jul
28
comment How to interpret John 2:10
Okay, I am in a dilemma here. I do not know greek, like most christians. I think methiosin means "drunk". However, I don't know for sure. I can't tell my friend, look, methiosin actually means drunk but bible translator translate that to "they might have drunk freely". Most people would say, it does mean "they might have drunk freely". And they could be right. I could be wrong. So I got to make sure.
Jul
27
comment Which 'modern' English translation of the Bible is considered the 'closest' or most accurate translation?
hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/19381/…
Jul
27
comment Is there bible translation that is more literal than Young Literal Translation
Asked that and the question is closed hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/19381/…
Jul
27
comment How to interpret John 2:10
Hebrew Hammer says it means drunk. Yet english translation doesn't say that. Can I trust english translator?
Jul
27
comment Is there bible translation that is more literal than Young Literal Translation
This should be a question by it self. biblehub.com/interlinear/john/2-10.htm translate methysthōsin as "they might have drunk freely" as of trying to hide the real meaning of the word, namely have been drunken. You see where the problem is?
Jul
6
comment How to understand Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13
Numbers 11:10 @BruceJames . The family are crying for lack of meat.
Jul
2
awarded  Popular Question
Jul
2
comment Does 1 Corinthians 8:5-6 favor henotheism?
Let me get this straight. This answer support henotheistic interpretation and the other answer support monotheistic interpretation. Am I wrong here?
Jul
2
comment Does 1 Corinthians 8:5-6 favor henotheism?
He called Jesus lord and the father God. Looks like lord and god are 2 different titles.
Jul
2
accepted Does 1 Corinthians 8:5-6 favor henotheism?
Jul
2
comment Does the word Satan ever show up in the New Testament?
What's the transliteration of σατάν
Jul
2
comment Who are the prostitutes in Deuteronomy 23:18?
Judah, I mean, not Jacob. It's Judah that have sex with Tamar
Jul
2
comment Was the ending of Matthew 28 added later?
what language, i forget
Jul
2
comment The accuracy of Stephen's claims about persecution of the prophets
the muslims often claim that their prophet, Muhammad is prosecuted. What happen is that most people in Mekkah simply don't believe him as prophets. Most just ignore and laugh at Muhammad. That's not prosecution. Again many jews may simply fail to see that a prophet isn't a prophet. Perhaps the prophet doesn't "sell" or not popular or not convincing. Well tough.
Jul
2
revised Why English translators would translate rhea into neighbor?
added 73 characters in body
Jul
2
comment Why English translators would translate rhea into neighbor?
I mean out of so many possible english words that a translator can use to translate rhea, buddy, comrades, fellows, why use the word neighbor?
Jul
2
asked Does the word Satan ever show up in the New Testament?