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Forget the meta battles, what this site lacks is a sufficient text-based technical knowledge, which leads to highly-praised second-rate answers and the paralysing inability to auto-critique. Mind you, even the penny wise dilettante can't help but be pound foolish, and this is likely the very reason you can't find a middle ground. Were there well-substantiated answers that drew from the breadth of available literature and had themselves merit in their depth of understanding, wheat would be distinguishable from chaff by self-evident demands of rigor. In the absence of anything closely resembling that, it's no wonder there's more fumbling in the dark than much else.


Aug
1
awarded  Yearling
Dec
3
answered What does chamushim (“fifties”) mean in Exodus 13:18?
Nov
20
awarded  Critic
Nov
20
comment Based on Genesis 4:26, upon whom did Adam call?
If you have no intention of addressing any of the points I raised I intend to downvote.
Nov
20
comment Based on Genesis 4:26, upon whom did Adam call?
Thirdly, regarding the subject of the verb, you say that it can't be "men" due to the verb's singular form, but there are plenty of examples (in particular in Genesis), where "men" are referred to as "mankind" in the singular "האדם" which makes that explanation perfectly plausible (albeit not explicit). Indeed some commentators (the Sforno, amongst many others) consider the word הוחל to take the meaning of beginning, but consider "men" the subject.
Nov
20
comment Based on Genesis 4:26, upon whom did Adam call?
Secondly, you claim that despite חלל in binyan piel meaning "profane", when that word is in another binyan, hifil in our case, it doesn't necessarily carry over the meaning. You provided an example, however this holds no weight, since there are plenty of examples where the construct is binyan hifil and the meaning is clearly "profane", for example Numbers 30:2-3, Leviticus 21:4, Ezekiel 20:9,14,22. Your example goes only to prove that not every such occurence means "profane", although that's obvious. In fact, these examples lend strong supporting evidence to the "profane" interpretation.
Nov
20
comment Based on Genesis 4:26, upon whom did Adam call?
Furthermore, as you explained, hufal is the passive construct, so if the root of the word were חילול then in the passive construct there wouldn't be the particle את (Gesenius 117), rendering your understanding moot. Your examples that confirm his assertion don't use the passive construct, so aren't relevant.
Nov
20
comment Based on Genesis 4:26, upon whom did Adam call?
Almost every other commentary (on the Ibn Ezra) explains simply that he means the phrase of "השם", i.e. God, should be next to the מילה in question, i.e. הוחל. Meaning, the verse should read הוחל שם יהוה. That explanation seems infintely simpler and more accurate: Every example I can find of Ibn Ezra's using the word "השם" means God (cf. Proverbs 14:26, 15:8-9,30, 11:31, Lamentations 2:9, 3:3, 4:22). Moreover, every use of the word מילה I can find of his, refers simply to "the word in question" (cf. Proverbs 14:7, 21:12).
Nov
20
comment Based on Genesis 4:26, upon whom did Adam call?
A nice answer. However IMO there are large caveats. Firstly, the Ibn Ezra is notoriously difficult to read. Your understanding of his counterclaim (היה השם סמוך אל המילה) seems very tenuous. Do you have any other references where he uses the word מילה to refer to "the particle את", or "השם" to mean "the noun"? It seems a huge stretch. The Avi Ezer (one of the most published commentaries on the Ibn Ezra's commentary) thinks he's talking about something entirely different.
Nov
19
awarded  Revival
Oct
23
comment When did Baasha king of Israel come up against Asa king of Judah [apparent contradiction]?
Most commentaries attribute the year counts to different events, so while one count is that of the reigning king, the other might be from his first battle or the split of the kingdom. They manage to find accurate, textually-based summations, and even some other textual hints that the counts are different, although changing the scales like that is only out of pure necessity since there clearly is a contradiction.
Oct
18
revised How is Jerusalem called after the name of God?
added 650 characters in body
Oct
18
answered After Israel repeatedly sinned, why is it said, “He has not observed iniquity in Jacob” (Num 23:21)?
Oct
14
answered How is Jerusalem called after the name of God?
Sep
16
answered What was Malachi's meaning in “The sun of righteousness” vs the sun gods of his day?
Sep
13
comment Is Hosea 11:1 referencing the initiation of the Exodus or the sojourn in Egypt?
Firstly, that particular vav is very well defined, it's called vav hahipuch, and is the reason your translation is correct of "loved" is in the "past tense" and not the "future tense", despite the verb itself being in "future tense" form. Secondly, the conjunction "and" then becomes questionable because of this. Lastly, I disagree with your conclusion and justification that he could have written עד היום, least of all because the biblical expression is עד היום הזה or sometimes עד עצם היום הזה. There's more to be said about the grammar here, maybe some other time.
Sep
11
answered Is there a significance in the usage of the two Hebrew words for the pronoun “I” (ʾănî and ʾānōkî)
Sep
7
answered Why does Moses change Hosea's name to Joshua?
Sep
6
revised David's sons served as priests?
added 52 characters in body
Sep
6
comment How are concubines different than wives?
jewishencyclopedia.com/articles/12148-pilegesh although compare to en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Concubine#In_the_Bible. You'll have to read all the references within for a better understanding.