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The last letter of the Hebrew alphabet is called Tau, and it has the power of the Roman T. In its present form n, in the square character now in use, it has no resemblance to a cross; but in the ancient Hebrew alphabet, its figure X, or +, was that of a cross. Hence, when it is said, in the vision of Ezekiel (ix, 4) "Go through the midst of the city, and set a mark (in the original"n, tau) upon the foreheads of the men that sigh and that cry for all the abominations that be done in the midst thereof"- which mark was to distinguish them as persons to be saved, on account of their sorrow for sin, from those who, as idolaters, were to be slain-the evident allusion is to a cross. The form of this cross was X or +, a form familiar to the people of that day.

It is significant to me in that it not only corresponds to the 1st letter of my name, but it corresponds to the One Who Saves us(The Aleph and the Tav) and His Work in redemption; which became real for me in Mar. 29, 1976 and has been real since.


10h
comment Why is Revelations canon?
@Bloch I'm sure hermeneutical studies(if your interested) shed considerable light on the Book of Revelations. The greatest reason why it is canonical is it's authenticity; Polycarp was a disciple of John and attested to it's veracity; both Irenaeus and Hippolytus have written and exegeted it. Justin Martyr, a disciple of Polycarp quotes it and Jerome states it authorship and included it in the Vulgate. Modern criticism in it's desire to affirm it's date before 70AD has attempted to challenge it's canonicity, but further evidence has established it's composition between 92-95AD.
1d
comment To Interpret Koine Greek, which contemporary writers can be used for comparison?
@All I would concur-move this to Meta!
1d
comment What did the Philippian jailer mean by “saved”?
You did use some references, but you should indicate where you got them. Also, it would help if you could reference your sweeping generality(...all pagan religions had some concept of salvation). I don't disagree, but to some it may not be self-evident. Thank you!
1d
comment What did the Philippian jailer mean by “saved”?
Welcome to BHSE! We're a little different here, please read our site directives before asking and answering questions. Thank you!
2d
comment Does the Bible include an unambiguous reference to divinely-appointed genocide?
@e.s.kohen I agree, God uses man to fulfill His Divine Retribution. The point being made, this is the agency of God; what man does is in agreement w/ God's plan.
Nov
25
comment What is the difference between hope and faith?
@FrankLuke I'm curious, what thinkest thou?
Nov
25
comment Does the Bible include an unambiguous reference to divinely-appointed genocide?
@cwallenpoole You might use the Deut/Roman's scriptures as your 'case in point'.
Nov
25
comment Does the Bible include an unambiguous reference to divinely-appointed genocide?
@cwallenpoole As I recorded in my comment to the ShemSegar answer, the term 'genocide' is anachronistic in referring to the action of God's Divine Retribution. Otherwise, with a little editing it is a good question, and worthy of a good answer.
Nov
25
comment Does the Bible include an unambiguous reference to divinely-appointed genocide?
@cwallenpoole Divine Retribution appears as 'genocide' only because God's specific command, through His prophets specifies what punishment is to be exacted upon His enemies. There is no misunderstanding of "utterly destroy", indeed, there were consequences when they failed to do so. But "vengeance is mine, saith the Lord"(Rom. 12:19/Deut. 32:41); not the domain of men; therefore 'genocide' as a definition, although descriptive of the action, is anachronistic, since it doesn't take into account the sovereignty of God, but the action of men.
Nov
25
comment Interpretation of Dan being a serpent?
@JoshuaBigbee If there was any tribe threatened to be expelled, it is the tribe of Benjamin(Judg. 21:3); yet we see Benjamin included in the Rev. 7 tribes. The Irenaeus/Hippolytus argument is one of speculation-they admitted as much. Without any other scriptural reason to exclude Dan, we have as much of a case against Ephraim as we do Dan.
Nov
24
comment The Euphrates River Drying up?
@BenjaminHoogterp I will admit that there is no recognizable hermeneutic that substitutes the word 'hydro'(water) for oil. The context of the River Euphrates established as a border for Israel is well recognized and the 'drying up' of that river isn't about the physical river, but what keeps the economies of the world alive, the 'oil' that is firmly in control of the nations that seek to do her harm. Therefore, the 'drying up of the River Euphrates' can be a euphemism for 'drying up of the Arab oil', done deliberately to provoke the final battle.
Nov
24
comment Is Song of Song's 'Lily' a male or a female?
A similar question can be found here.
Nov
24
comment Is Song of Song's 'Lily' a male or a female?
The challenge with your question(it is a simple one, and easily answered) is it presumes a context(Christ or His Church) which is not stated in the text. While I agree with your assertion(there are many that do not), the question would have been better phrased by saying, "Who is represented in the passage, Solomon, or the Shulamite, and how are we to interpret this passage?" Then one could respond by declaring(or not) that the Shulamite is representative of the Church, while leaving room for other interpretations of the text.
Nov
21
comment The Euphrates River Drying up?
@BejaminHoogterp I've created a room called Symbolic Interpretation-we should move our conversation there, if you're interested.
Nov
21
comment The Euphrates River Drying up?
The "horse" is a vehicle, what kind of 'vehicle' is indicated by it's color. "White" is pure, authentic, truth. "Red" is bloody, evil, indicative of disaster. Black is plague, it's rider brings famine, disease, pestilence. Pale is death, it's rider removes life.
Nov
21
comment The Euphrates River Drying up?
Any time the Euphrates is crossed, it is indicative of disaster for Israel. God had marked the "Great River" as the boundary of the land He was giving Israel(Gen.15:18); you cross the border and you pick a fight. Since Israel was NOT a nation during or after 70AD, it could not be 'attacked' by a nation crossing the Euphrates. From 1948 onward, however, it IS a nation, and the prophetic rules apply.
Nov
21
comment The Euphrates River Drying up?
When we 'see' statues, beasts coming out of the sea, white horses(versus other colors) what are we "looking at"? If we get an address of where Jesus is to be born(Bethlehem of Judea), then the rules of Literal interpretation apply. When we see 'horses', there is a meaning surrounding horses, if we understand their meaning, then we can understand what the 'horses' are.
Nov
21
comment The Euphrates River Drying up?
Does Jesus actually ride down from Heaven on a White Horse? His disciples didn't see a 'white horse' when He ascended into Heaven, and they were told "in like manner as you see Him"(Acts 1:11). So, what does the "White Horse" mean?
Nov
21
comment The Euphrates River Drying up?
(Really finally) BOTH, (Physical and Spiritual births) are Realities, they are not 'metaphors, similes, implied comparisons' they are REAL! It's just that one is understood in it's Literal context, the other is understood in it's Figurative context. A code is a real message, it is written in such a way as to confuse it's unintended recipient.
Nov
21
comment The Euphrates River Drying up?
(finally) Simple example: Jesus said,"You must be born again". Nicodemus interpreted it "Literally"(re-entering and exiting his mother's womb), Jesus meant it "Figuratively"(being spiritually regenerated, and compared it to being 're-born).