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Mar
28
comment Did Abraham leave Haran before or after his father died?
@Drake Welcome to BHSE! We're a little different here, please read our Site Directives as you ask and answer questions. Thank you!
Mar
28
reviewed Reviewed What does the Greek word κύριος mean in 1 Cor. 12:3?
Mar
28
comment What does the Greek word κύριος mean in 1 Cor. 12:3?
Good answer! And welcome to BHSE!
Mar
28
reviewed Reviewed Could saying that Melchizedek was “without beginning of days or end of life” possibly be a textual error?
Mar
28
comment Could saying that Melchizedek was “without beginning of days or end of life” possibly be a textual error?
Your point is taken, but there are numerous 'holes' in your explanation. You're going to need to 'connect the dots' before you summerize a conclusion. Re-read your answer, from the point of view of having no idea what you are talking about, and see if it makes sense. If you do that, I think you will see the need to include more 'steps' in arriving at your conclusion, as well as references to illustrate them. Thank you!
Mar
28
comment Could saying that Melchizedek was “without beginning of days or end of life” possibly be a textual error?
Welcome to BHSE! We're a little different here, please read our Site Directives as you ask or answer questions. Thank you!
Mar
28
reviewed No Action Needed What was sinful about the acts that Jesus was tempted to perform?
Mar
28
comment What is a “Pre-Christian” understanding of the Abomination of Desolation?
@All I awarded Joseph my "bounty" as it was due to expire; I believe there is more to be added to a Jewish understanding of שִׁקּוּצִים֙ מְשֹׁמֵ֔ם, please feel free to add responses to this question.
Mar
28
awarded  Benefactor
Mar
28
comment What is a “Pre-Christian” understanding of the Abomination of Desolation?
Thank you for pursuing this question! I also welcome further responses, as the question of "whether or not same understanding continues today" has not been addressed in your response. I actually have(or had) a copy of Jacob Neusner's Midrash in Perspective-it escaped my mind when I posed this question. Thank you for your response!
Mar
28
accepted What is a “Pre-Christian” understanding of the Abomination of Desolation?
Mar
27
reviewed Reopen Why do translations use “wild ox”?
Mar
27
reviewed Leave Closed Why is the Greek word Θεὸς in John 1:1c treated as a proper noun in English Translation?
Mar
27
accepted What is the meaning of “Rest” in Heb. 4:3-5?
Mar
25
comment Circumcision “reversal” in 1 Corinthians
@FrankLuke The point being; living like a Gentile doesn;t necessarily mean you had an operation to reverse your circumcision, neither does living under the "Law" mean your circumcision gets restored. Verse 19 says it all. When Paul mentions the specific act of circumcision, he mentions it in context of an individual. The argument against the Gentiles being circumcised wasn't the 'physical part', it was the keeping of the whole Law,(Acts 15:14). Therefore, "remaining in the state you are in" means obeying the Law, if you are a Jew, and being under grace, not the Law if you are a Gentile.
Mar
25
comment Circumcision “reversal” in 1 Corinthians
@FrankLuke Finally, did Peter in Gal. 2:11-12, get 'reversed', only to withdraw and get re-reversed? You see what happens when you take a plain truth and get 'scientific' about it?
Mar
25
comment Circumcision “reversal” in 1 Corinthians
@FrankLuke True...,but..an epispasm(20th century term-meaning circumcision reversal, only available through skin grafts) is not the same as 'hiding' one's circumcision. Calling 'epispasm' "hiding" is anachronistic(IMO) as it attempts to re-define a modern surgical procedure into ancient practice, in order to preserve a 'dubious' meaning of 1Cor 7:19. The obvious next question is, "Then why did the translators of the ESV call it "marks of circumcision" when the KJV (and others) simply say "uncircumcision". Are they imputing meaning not derived from the text? It's been done before.....
Mar
25
revised Circumcision “reversal” in 1 Corinthians
deleted 1 character in body
Mar
23
comment What is a “Pre-Christian” understanding of the Abomination of Desolation?
@JoshuaBigbee The wording of the Hebrew Bible states something (IMO) that isn't mentioned in Christian circles. I have written copiously about "Christian" understanding of this term: what's needed is a Jewish understanding ; which has been noticeably absent from the discussion. The term is a "Jewish" term, therefore it needs a Jewish interpretation.
Mar
23
awarded  Promoter