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18h
reviewed No Action Needed John 12:24--In what way does the grain of wheat die?
18h
reviewed Reviewed Why does Abraham purchase a well he already owns?
18h
comment Why does Abraham purchase a well he already owns?
@EudoraNachland This is actually a good answer from a 1st time user, therefore I upvoted it. As you see other responses, and understand what we are looking for in answers, it will help you focus your efforts-Thank you!
18h
comment Why does Abraham purchase a well he already owns?
@EudoraNachland Welcome to BHSE! We're a little different here, please take the opportunity to view our Site Directives as they will better explain how we ask and answer questions. Thank you!
Feb
9
comment What is the author's purpose in writing Acts?
@JimLohse This answer is addressing Markian priority, and using historical criticism to arrive at a conclusion about the author's intent. While it is certainly a legitimate means of addressing the text, the OP isn't asking about the validity of the text; he is merely asking whether an actual person or a rhetorical device was used.
Feb
9
comment What Does “Completely Destroy” or “Drive Out” Actually Mean?
This is a Very Important Question, and one that gets misconstrued/misuderstood. I hope there are some rabbinical references to this question also. The fact that God, and not man gave this commandment gives an entirely different understanding to this issue.
Feb
8
comment What is the author's purpose in writing Acts?
@RevelationLad I believe you attempted an answer, and offered a conclusion as to the 'why' of Theophilus. I think it's a start-but can you bring any conclusive proof as to whether or not Theophilus actually existed? Thanks.
Feb
8
comment What is the author's purpose in writing Acts?
I rarely DV, if I see that a logical conclusion(whether I agree with it or not) can be drawn. I find most of your answer is more about skepticism and less about the OP's question: whether or not "Theophilus" is an actual person or a rhetorical device. Your response addresses a different question(IMO) than what the OP is asking.
Feb
5
comment Conflicting locations for Rachel's burial
It may be any one the things you've mentioned; and it may be an 'anomaly'; just as in where was Abraham buried: (Sychem or Mamre)? The Truth was that she was buried "in the land"; the 'where' becomes a point of academic concern, which some who cite "inerrancy" get tangled in various nuances-and those who oppose "inspiration" use passages like these to discredit "inspiration". The Bible is a book of Truth, and it contains the words of Life. It is not a book of history, although historical facts are contained within it. That's where I'm coming from.
Feb
5
comment Conflicting locations for Rachel's burial
Wow! I think we've got an 'inerrancy' question here....?
Feb
5
comment Meaning of “ἄρτιος”(artios) in II Tim 3:17
Thank you for your response! I believe you've resolved the confusion regarding the translation of ἄρτιος. The 'perfect' usage is consistent throughout the KJV, although "artios" in this instance seemed strange. But your answer reconciles this, thanks.
Feb
5
accepted Meaning of “ἄρτιος”(artios) in II Tim 3:17
Feb
4
comment Meaning of “ἄρτιος”(artios) in II Tim 3:17
@Susan It come from the "I missed one important word" translation :P.. Thank you for reminding me, I edited it to correct this error...;>)
Feb
4
revised Meaning of “ἄρτιος”(artios) in II Tim 3:17
added 27 characters in body
Feb
4
comment What sort of sinner etc. is Nietzsche's madman?
@User3293056 I would love to answer this question-having absorbed "Thus spake Zarathustra" in my late teens.But unless you convert it to understanding a biblical text(you could cite the text, and ask if Nietzsche's understanding conveyed it's meaning), otherwise it is Off-Topic and likely to be closed. Thank you!
Feb
4
asked Meaning of “ἄρτιος”(artios) in II Tim 3:17
Feb
3
comment Was Isaiah familiar with the prophecy of Amos?
I looked extensively into the history portion of this question; Amos certainly came before Isaiah, and more important, Isaiah was a chronicler(2 Chr. 26:22), which would have given him access to manuscripts. The Jewish Encyclopedia is emphatic about Amos writing his book, therefore the scribal connection seems evident. What I was looking for is a literary and especially a linguistic comparison; I'm sure they're out there but I was unable to find. So I changed my answer to a comment...:>)
Jan
30
awarded  Popular Question
Jan
29
reviewed Reopen Is there a time gap between the book of Zechariah and the Gospel of Matthew?
Jan
29
reviewed Leave Closed Interpreting “psyche” as “soul”