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1h
comment Resist Not Evil
@MarkEdward I'm aware of the 'Systematic Relationship'(ie: pacifism/antiwar, etc.) that could be engendered from this question, and that is not my purpose in posting it. However, my question is "Contextual" and not merely translative, which means an answer should be consistent with the rest of Jesus's sayings, which provide a means of understanding this particular text. That is entirely "On-Topic".
18h
asked Resist Not Evil
May
27
comment What is “the law of liberty” in James 2:12?
@e.s.kohen What I'm saying is the "Law of liberty" is a euphemism throughout the NT for "The Law of love". This is "the love of God shed abroad in our hearts"(Rom. 5:5), therefore, there is no code, text, or theology to regulate it-it is the gift of God. The Law requires love, but grace(unmerited favor) gives it in a greater measure than is required by the Law; therefore, it is called the "Law of liberty" because it exceeds the requirement of the Law, which only a 'free' person can give.
May
27
comment What is “the law of liberty” in James 2:12?
@e.s.kohen To love as Christ loved, means to "have Christ's love" which is a gift from God, not one that can be internally generated. This "agape/love" fulfills the Law, yet is beyond the Law, because whereas the Law was concerned with outward expression, this love goes beyond outward expression and permeates the entire being of the person. It is indeed, the "law of liberty" because no law can effect it, it is the "charity" Paul talks about in 1 Cor. 13
May
18
revised What are the major variations of the “double-fulfillment” hermeneutic?
edited body
May
17
answered Is Satan one of the “sons of God”?
May
16
comment Hosea 6.7: “like men”, “like Adam”, or “at Adam”?
This answer doesn't address the translator's speculation on the Hebrew wording, but it DOES answer the question(+1). Sometimes the answer lies within the 'context' rather than the morphology of the words, and this answer makes perfect sense within the context of Hosea's message.
May
8
comment Would it have mattered if God cursed Adam and Eve if they had eaten from the tree of life?
@JoshuaBigbee Redemption had been prophesied to the man through 1) the woman's seed crushing the head of the serpent, 2) the fact that God made skins-a sacrifice involving who's blood was shed to cover man's nakedness. But he would have to live under the dominion of the enemy, who's allegiance he gave when he disobeyed God's commandment. The 'curse' was only covered by the blood of animals-it wasn't removed until the finished work of Christ gave him redemption from it. Also, 'work' was given before the Fall, "toil" and opposition came after it.
May
7
comment Was the Revelation written in code to hide it from the Romans?
@JoshuaBigbee Those are the 4 commonly accepted hermeneutics for evaluating the Book of Revelations: they are taught at most Bible courses and they give a framework for understanding, as well as gauge for reconciling the various interpretations. Futurism and Dispensationalism both hold to a 'literal' hermeneutic, the difference being one's eschatology concerning Israel. The others take a widely divergent viewpoint and would be remiss not to mention them.
May
5
answered Would it have mattered if God cursed Adam and Eve if they had eaten from the tree of life?
Apr
30
comment What are the many Sabbaths referred to in scripture?
(cont.) This is far from true-in fact if the 4th commandment is made void, what is to prevent the other 9 from being considered nulified. The truth is modern man has negated the Sabbath's, and paid the penalty for it, in premature aging, disease, poverty, stress, as well as infertility, drought, soil errosion. What day one celebrates it is under grace, as well as what one does or doesn't do(for the Christian). But the principle is part of the eternal Word of God, and the world will pass away before His Word does.
Apr
30
comment What are the many Sabbaths referred to in scripture?
I have to go with your answer over Caleb's as it encompasses "rest" instead of day. While Caleb may be 95% accurate, the 'Shabat' encompasses the rest of God-consistant throughout Scripture, from Genesis to Revelations. Because "The word sabbath is from the Hebrew word SHABÀT, meaning ‘cessation,’ or ‘time of rest.’ it means more than a particular day, it indicates completion and sessation from one's activity to enter into "God's rest". Many misinterpret Jesus's saying "the Father works and I work"(Jn. 5:17) to mean there is no more "day of rest"-it has all been fulfilled.
Apr
30
comment What are the many Sabbaths referred to in scripture?
@Caleb The 2 Chron.36:21 passage refers to the 7th year Sabbaths, in which the land was to lie fallow(Lev. 25:4),"But in the seventh year shall be a sabbath of rest unto the land, a sabbath for the LORD." Therefore, saying 'Sabbath' as merely the 7th day fails to include the principle of rest that all Sabbaths include-especially the Sabbath of the land.
Apr
29
comment Why was all of Jerusalem troubled at Jesus birth?
@e.s.kohen Here is the Wikipedia site-although the Idumeans(in this case Herod) passed themselves off as Jews, there is considerable controversy from both Jewish and other sources as to whether he was. His willingness to collect taxes for Rome put him outside of traditional Jewish observance-as well as his murdering of those who stood in his way.
Apr
29
comment Why was all of Jerusalem troubled at Jesus birth?
You will notice in John 11:48,"If we let him thus alone, all men will believe on him: and the Romans shall come and take away both our place and nation". The Romans were ruthless in quelling insurrection, furthermore anyone having anything to do with it would be deposed. After the Quirinian taxation and revolt, a Roman prefect was appointed-Pilate was one in a succession of them. The Herodian Dynasty ruled, yet the 'procurator' could summons the Roman legions, making any attempt to rule meaningless. Therefore it was 'necessary' to 'keep the status quo' .
Apr
29
comment Why was all of Jerusalem troubled at Jesus birth?
Yes, it is a fair assessment. "The Jewish" leadership, distinct from the rest of the whole Israeli/Palestinian population is accurate. Many were awaiting the consolation of Israel,(Simeon and Anna) vs the Herodian kings(those that Rome allowed after the Hasmoneans were deposed in 62BC) which created jealousy with the Hasmonean priesthood. Also, Herod was an Edomite-(his wife was Jewish), and he was trying to curry favor with the Jews(building them a Temple helped) yet remain a "vassal/king" which meant exacting taxes for Rome-which was anathema to the Pharisee/Zealots..
Apr
28
comment Why was all of Jerusalem troubled at Jesus birth?
This is an interesting question; the signs of Jesus's birth(The Star of Bethlehem, angelic hosts singing) as well as the visitation from the Magi must have hade a profound effect on the populace. It is important to understand the historical context, which tells us why Herod and the Chief Priests and Scribes were so opposed to His arrival.
Apr
27
revised Rev 9:4: Do not hurt the non-existing grass?
added 531 characters in body
Apr
27
comment Rev 9:4: Do not hurt the non-existing grass?
@brilliant The question is answered by, "...only those who have not the seal of God on their forehead." The 'locust' being figurative, are not 'insects' which chew on grass, but demons from Hell sent to torment men. Their assignment is not to destroy physical earth, therefore 'grass' is not part of the picture. The "Real" question I believe you're asking is, 'Why did John make a point of telling us their assignment is not to harm physical earth?' My answer is so that we would understand their true assignment, which is described figuratively.
Apr
26
answered Rev 9:4: Do not hurt the non-existing grass?