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The last letter of the Hebrew alphabet is called Tau, and it has the power of the Roman T. In its present form n, in the square character now in use, it has no resemblance to a cross; but in the ancient Hebrew alphabet, its figure X, or +, was that of a cross. Hence, when it is said, in the vision of Ezekiel (ix, 4) "Go through the midst of the city, and set a mark (in the original"n, tau) upon the foreheads of the men that sigh and that cry for all the abominations that be done in the midst thereof"- which mark was to distinguish them as persons to be saved, on account of their sorrow for sin, from those who, as idolaters, were to be slain-the evident allusion is to a cross. The form of this cross was X or +, a form familiar to the people of that day.

It is significant to me in that it not only corresponds to the 1st letter of my name, but it corresponds to the One Who Saves us(The Aleph and the Tav) and His Work in redemption; which became real for me in Mar. 29, 1976 and has been real since.


2d
comment Did Jesus read minds or perceive them?
I don't think this question could be answered any better-thank you for your response!
Dec
23
comment Did Jesus read minds or perceive them?
The "pure in heart" see both God and man. To have a 'single eye' means no deception clouds your own judgment, therefore, it is easier to see others.
Dec
23
comment Luke 22:38 - ἱκανόν ἐστιν - Does it mean, “It is enough” or “Enough!”
Excellent answer! Since there is no clear indication of the imperative, and one could rightly take to mean '2 swords is sufficient', even though contextually Jesus is not talking about swordplay, the best we can say is Jesus was following the plan of God in spite of His disciples' misunderstandings.
Dec
23
comment Did Jesus subject Himself to the law of the land by paying the temple tax?
@BenchNoviaBensing This is a good question; on the 'surface' it appears He's condescending, but when you 'dig' beneath the surface, you find His response is absolutely proper, as Jesus was 'under the Law' and guiltless according to it.
Dec
22
comment Luke 22:38 - ἱκανόν ἐστιν - Does it mean, “It is enough” or “Enough!”
@user6509 A good question! The only significant difference from the Peshitta is "sufficient", which is not "enough" of a case to go on. The fact that He miraculously healed the servant's ear points to the fact that swordplay was not His intent, yet He doesn't verbally dissuade them from getting swords. The "Hikanon estin" doesn't seem strong enough(without being there) to indicate His displeasure, although clearly He never intended to resist arrest.
Dec
21
comment “he will rule over you” — good, bad, or neutral?
@Jas3.1 I couldn't include this in my answer, as it would appear 'anachronistic', but in 1 Cor. 15:25-26,"He must reign, till He has put all enemies under His feet. The last enemy that shall be destroyed is death." Because of sin, death entered and it requires "dominion" to overcome. You might say it wasn't God's 'perfect' plan, but necessary to live in a world that is under the dominion of darkness.
Dec
19
answered “he will rule over you” — good, bad, or neutral?
Dec
19
revised Why did 400,000 men of the Tribes of Israel assemble over one rape in Judges 19:20-30 and Judges 20?
remove editorializing, add clarity of context
Dec
19
comment Why did 400,000 men of the Tribes of Israel assemble over one rape in Judges 19:20-30 and Judges 20?
Your question needs 2 edits; 1) To cite specific scripture reference, and 2) To clarify "tribe of Benjamin" vs "civilization", a wrong context, unless your interpretation of 'civilization' would mean any collective group of people-certainly not an accurate rendering of the word used. Otherwise, it is a valid question, and one that can be answered from the text.
Dec
19
comment Why did 400,000 men of the Tribes of Israel assemble over one rape in Judges 19:20-30 and Judges 20?
Welcome to BHSE! We're a little different here, please read our Site Directives before asking or answering questions. Thank you!
Dec
17
reviewed No Action Needed Why is the genealogy in Luke attributed to Mary?
Dec
12
comment What is being “judged” in 2 Corinthians 5:10?
@majnemɪzdæn I agree. I was 'thinking out loud' for the benefit of a new user who maybe searching for a way to make his question 'fit' our site directives.
Dec
11
comment What is being “judged” in 2 Corinthians 5:10?
@majnemɪzdæn I agree as it is written it is a theology question; however, if one merely compared the 2 texts without assigning a theological reference, an answer could make a textual comparison and thereby discuss the implications from a hermeneutical perspective, which would be entirely "On Topic"(IMHO).
Dec
6
comment What is Satan's relationship with God?
@SethofAdama I would opt that Jack's link is a better question with the same answer.
Dec
6
comment What historical reasons resulted in Revelation being included in most Christian canons?
@majnemɪzdæn No, I didn't realize it. Those mainline churches who do use it, usually interpret it through an Idealist view, and stop at chapter 4.
Dec
6
comment What historical reasons resulted in Revelation being included in most Christian canons?
Superb, and the complete resume of views concerning canonicity. Thank you for the in depth focus and the gaps you filled in.
Dec
5
comment In Acts 3:20, Is Peter Referring to Christ's Second Coming?
@wilberteric The OP has given a prime example of Dual Fulfillment and you handled it well. "The Times of Refreshment" include the consolation of Israel, yet the consolation of Israel is not complete until her enemies are destroyed-a future event. +1
Dec
5
reviewed Reviewed In John 14:2, what is Jesus' Father's house?
Dec
5
comment In John 14:2, what is Jesus' Father's house?
Welcome to BHSE! We're a little different here, please review our Site Directives before asking or answering questions. We DO require you to "Show Your Work", unlike Forums, where expressing an opinion without references is sufficient.
Dec
5
reviewed Approve In Acts 3:20, Is Peter Referring to Christ's Second Coming?