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Aug
5
revised Does 1 Peter 2:8 suggest humanity is destined or called to purposes set by God?
cleaned it up a bit
Aug
5
answered Does 1 Peter 2:8 suggest humanity is destined or called to purposes set by God?
Aug
4
comment Exactly what part of the Law has been abolished?
Fine job, Jack! I took the liberty of tidying things up a bit, but your observations are spot on, in my opinion. Don
Aug
4
revised Exactly what part of the Law has been abolished?
tidied things up a bit
Jul
31
revised A special hermeneutical term for the writer's main goal for writing a book?
punctuation changes
Jul
29
revised A special hermeneutical term for the writer's main goal for writing a book?
yadda, yadda, yadda
Jul
29
revised A special hermeneutical term for the writer's main goal for writing a book?
yadda, yadda, yadda
Jul
29
revised A special hermeneutical term for the writer's main goal for writing a book?
clarified question, I think
Jul
29
answered A special hermeneutical term for the writer's main goal for writing a book?
Jul
27
awarded  Popular Question
Jul
22
comment Why is 'fine' added in the translation of ἱματίων in 1 Peter 3:3
@DavidMulder: Thanks, Dave. Paul's "take" on adornment (see footnote number one in my answer) makes a similar point. He's NOT saying women must not dress elegantly if they have the means to do so. Rather, he is saying that adorning oneself with good deeds is more significant to the local assembly and to God than merely adorning oneself with haute couture and bling! In a poorer congregation, dressing down could be a good deed for a woman who is well off. OTOH, in a richer congregation, dressing up could make the other women feel comfortable. The same thinking applies to public occasions. Don
Jul
22
answered Why is 'fine' added in the translation of ἱματίων in 1 Peter 3:3
Jul
22
revised Why is 'fine' added in the translation of ἱματίων in 1 Peter 3:3
tidied it up a bit, esp. wi punctuation
Jul
20
revised How should the chronologies of Galatians 1:16-17 and Acts 9 be reconciled?
tidied it up a bit. fixed capitalization, punctuation, formatting, and more.
Jul
13
comment Matt. 22:15-22 says, “Give back to Caesar what is Caesar's and to God what is God's.”Did Jesus proclaim a separation of church and state?
@MicahGafford: For some reason I am not able to post my rewritten answer to your question on 1 Peter 3:18. If you'd like a copy of it, I'll be glad to send it to you. Just write me at the email address indicated in my biography. Just click on my picture to access it. Thanks. Don
Jul
12
comment What “spirit” is 1 Peter 3:18 referring too?
@MicahGafford: You're probably right. I'll attempt a rewrite to see if I can come up with a better answer. Don
Jul
8
comment What “spirit” is 1 Peter 3:18 referring too?
Forgive me, I didn't know (and still don't) that comments were to be worded only in question form, which seems to be your guiding assumption. My "answer," as you call it was not an answer but a thank you, of sorts. As you already know, Dick, we will never see eye to eye on the issue of biblical authorship. Frankly, however, the people who insist that the names appended to various epistles are NOT necessarily --if ever--the people who wrote them need to assume the burden of proof as to why they aren't. The ethics of writing back then were not so different than as they are today.
Jul
4
comment What “spirit” is 1 Peter 3:18 referring too?
Thanks for your wording: "We need not even assume that the author of First Peter . . .." In other words, we CAN assume that Peter wrote the letter we call "First Peter," but we NEEDN'T assume. I can live with that. Don [P.S. One good reason for thinking the apostle Peter wrote First Peter is in verse one of chapter one: "Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ . . .." In Peter's day, one identified oneself as the writer of a letter at the very beginning, not the end, as we do today (by saying, for example, "Sincerely yours, Dick Harfield").
Jul
4
revised What “spirit” is 1 Peter 3:18 referring too?
erratum
Jul
4
answered What “spirit” is 1 Peter 3:18 referring too?