2,368 reputation
116
bio website none
location Pittsburgh, PA
age 63
visits member for 10 months
seen 17 hours ago

For the last 56 years, I have been a practicing Christian (liberally conservative and evangelical). Should any posting I make to any Stack Exchange website pique your curiosity as to the what and why of my beliefs, feel free to communicate with me at drlarter@yahoo.com. I do not claim to have all the answers--let alone all the questions(!), but I would consider it a privilege to discuss Christianity with you in a rational and civilized fashion.

My wife (a native Egyptian and Christian) and I have been married over 40 years. We have two grown children who have flown the coop, making us empty nesters.

I have a Master's degree in Speech Communications and three years of doctoral studies in Rhetorical Theory at the University of Pittsburgh. After a brief stint as a teacher of public speaking, I embarked on a couple of different and totally divergent pursuits by owning and operating two small businesses.

Tired of being in business for myself, I went back to school at Duquesne University's Paralegal Institute in Pittsburgh, where I was certified recently as a paralegal. I am currently looking for employment in that field, and would like to round out the last stage of my work life in some area of jurisprudence.

A rhetorical perspective is almost as natural to me as breathing. Overt and covert attempts at persuasion, whether written or spoken, are my legitimate targets for analysis, evaluation, and criticism. Of particular interest to the EL&U web site contributors would be, with some adaptations and modifications, the traditional canons of speech: style (elocutio), invention (inventio), organization (dispositio), memorability (memoria), and delivery (pronuntiatio or actio) .


Mar
5
revised Are there two different types of “tongues” spoken about in the NT?
re-organized it a bit; made it scan more easily; inserted a few missing words
Mar
5
comment Are there two different types of “tongues” spoken about in the NT?
making melody to the Lord with one's heart; always being thankful for all things; and submitting to one another in the fear of Christ. (It almost goes without saying, the filling of the Spirit always comes with supernatural power and enabling in the use of our spiritual "gift mix" (C. Peter Wagner). 3) The Spirit's "intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered" is not necessarily speaking in tongues. By insisting it is, one is reading more into the text than is warranted. 4) Keeping one's "utterance from ...[disrupting] the flow of the service" is a good idea, but not biblical.
Mar
5
comment Are there two different types of “tongues” spoken about in the NT?
Good answer! +1. A couple suggestions for improvement. 1) the phrases "baptism of the Holy Spirit" and "baptized in the Holy Spirit" are not strictly biblical. True, the Spirit is "poured out," can be "received," and can "come upon" people, but people are not baptized INTO the Spirit; rather, they are baptized INTO THE NAME OF JESUS. 2) "praying in the Holy Ghost" (Jude) is not necessarily the same as praying in tongues, just as being filled with the Spirit isn't always accompanied by tongues. Being filled could be evidenced by the speaking of psalms, hymns, & spiritual songs to one another;
Mar
5
revised Are there two different types of “tongues” spoken about in the NT?
minor tweaks
Mar
5
comment Does the Holy Spirit have a name
I like your "So instead of saying that the Holy Spirit has a distinct name, I think we should say that God who revealed himself to Moses and the prophets by his singular name YHWH has further revealed himself by his singular name which is 'Father, Son, Holy Spirit.'" That's an interesting way of putting it. IOW, in God, you get three for one (or Three for One), so to speak!
Mar
5
answered Does the Holy Spirit have a name
Mar
4
answered Exo. 34:33 - Did Moshe speak with the Israelites veiled or unveiled?
Mar
3
comment Why is the dividing of clothes considered the fulfillment of scripture?
@user2479: Thank you. Perhaps it bears repeating: "It's good to be back . . . I think." Don
Mar
3
revised Why is the dividing of clothes considered the fulfillment of scripture?
cleaned it up a bit
Mar
3
revised What is the significance of touching Moses' feet with his son's foreskin in Exodus 4:25?
a few minor changes
Mar
3
answered What is the significance of touching Moses' feet with his son's foreskin in Exodus 4:25?
Mar
3
answered Why is the dividing of clothes considered the fulfillment of scripture?
Mar
2
comment Difference among “Word”, “word” and “Doctrine”
The same lower-case W and upper-case W apply as well to scripture, scriptures, Scripture, and Scriptures. Usually, the upper-case Scripture(s) is preceded by the article "the" and the word denotes the entire Bible (or perhaps the entire Old Testament). When we write "There is a scripture, I believe, in Exodus, chapter 21 where . . .," a lower-case S is fine. The same with "There are a number of scriptures which agree with this answer; for example, . . .." Second Timothy 4:2 uses the Word to refer to the whole of Scripture, whereas many more verses, esp. in Paul's letters, use the lower-case W.
Mar
1
comment Why would Mary and Joseph offer “turtle doves” in Luke 2:24?
Perhaps the gifts of the Magi served to "tide them over" while Joseph looked for work in an unfamiliar city. In other words, they may have sold the gifts on the open market. Perhaps eBay! (a joke)
Mar
1
comment What is the “great mystery” in Ephesians 5:32?
@PaulVargas: Yes, at least from my point of view. God declared many Old Testament saints (such as Abraham) to be righteous in His sight (Romans 4:3; Galatians 3:6; James 2:23). In other words, God imputed His righteousness to them and imputed their unrighteousness to His Son, who was the Lamb of God, slain from the foundation of the world (1 Peter 1:20 KJV, and Revelation 13:8 KJV), just as He does to us today in this "dispensation of grace."
Feb
22
revised What is the meaning of “violence” in Matthew 11:12?
deleted a few extra words
Feb
21
answered What is the meaning of “violence” in Matthew 11:12?
Feb
20
comment How does one reconcile John's account of the baptism of Jesus with that of the synoptic gospels chronologically?
Frankly, I do not see any need to reconcile the four accounts. John's wording IS a little tricky, but the way I read 1:29-34 is as follows: 1) Jesus' baptism had already taken place; 2) John IDs Jesus as God's Lamb; 3) John identifies himself as the forerunner, and Jesus as the "royalty" whom he preceded; 4) John says twice that he did not recognize Jesus as the Messiah UNTIL His baptism; 5) John testifies that he HAS SEEN Jesus being anointed with the Holy Spirit at His baptism (see #1, above); 6) at the baptism is where John recognized Messiah Jesus bec. the HS descended & REMAINED on Him.
Feb
20
comment “How did Jesus' ”teaching with authority“ differ from the Scribes?”
@user2479: You're welcome. Yes to your question. I'm at a loss as to how I would describe the style and delivery of Jesus, however. He certainly did not mince words; He called a spayed a spayed. He went to the heart of issues and did not pussyfoot around the hot-button issues of His day. He condemned hypocrisy, which was endemic, particularly within Pharisaism. To this day, the very word denotes hypocrisy! He also re-interpreted the Law of Moses in a particularly powerful way: "You've heard it was said . . . , but I SAY UNTO YOU . . .." Saying that sort of thing took guts!
Feb
20
revised “How did Jesus' ”teaching with authority“ differ from the Scribes?”
erratum