2,707 reputation
217
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location Pittsburgh, PA
age 64
visits member for 1 year, 1 month
seen 5 hours ago

For the last 56 years, I have been a practicing Christian (liberally conservative and evangelical). Should any posting I make to any Stack Exchange website pique your curiosity as to the what and why of my beliefs, feel free to communicate with me at drlarter@yahoo.com. I do not claim to have all the answers--let alone all the questions(!), but I would consider it a privilege to discuss Christianity with you in a rational and civilized fashion.

My wife (a native Egyptian and Christian) and I have been married over 40 years. We have two grown children who have flown the coop, making us empty nesters.

I have a Master's degree in Speech Communications and three years of doctoral studies in Rhetorical Theory at the University of Pittsburgh. After a brief stint as a teacher of public speaking, I embarked on a couple of different and totally divergent pursuits by owning and operating two small businesses.

Tired of being in business for myself, I went back to school at Duquesne University's Paralegal Institute in Pittsburgh, where I was certified recently as a paralegal. I am currently looking for employment in that field, and would like to round out the last stage of my work life in some area of jurisprudence.

A rhetorical perspective is almost as natural to me as breathing. Overt and covert attempts at persuasion, whether written or spoken, are my legitimate targets for analysis, evaluation, and criticism. Of particular interest to the EL&U web site contributors would be, with some adaptations and modifications, the traditional canons of speech: style (elocutio), invention (inventio), organization (dispositio), memorability (memoria), and delivery (pronuntiatio or actio) .


Jan
16
revised Why did not the Apostle Paul ever say “In the name of him who says” (i.e., Heb. be-shem omro)?
clarified a few things, I hope.
Jan
16
asked Why did not the Apostle Paul ever say “In the name of him who says” (i.e., Heb. be-shem omro)?
Jan
10
comment What does “sit” mean in the scripture “The prostitute who sits on many waters.”
@gideonmarx: A preacher I heard recently suggests that in addition to the highly metaphorical language so ubiquitous in Revelation, John is also using a form of CODE which his audience would be able to decipher, but which outsiders, including the powers that be who put John on Patmos, would not. The economic aspect, vis a vis the maritime trade you mention, is still an important element in Revelation, but it is addressed in chapter 18, not 17, where the focus is on the religious apostasy inherent in Babylon (which BTW was obviously a real kingdom but is CODE in Revelation for something else).
Jan
9
comment What does “sit” mean in the scripture “The prostitute who sits on many waters.”
@Bagpipes: Yes, epi could mean "beside" or "by" or "next to" the waters, though the NIV and the NET, for example, translate it "on." The word for sits or sitting, in Greek, is kathēmai. See Rev 4:9,10; 5:13; 6:16; 7:10; 7:15.
Jan
9
revised What does “sit” mean in the scripture “The prostitute who sits on many waters.”
Corrected some errors in the flow of events, since I conflated two events into one.
Jan
9
comment What is the context in Mark and Luke as regards the buying and preparing of the spices?
@BruceAlderman: I don't think so. I've tried to conflate the unique details of each Evangelist into a narrative flow, just as Dr. Orville did, without giving a preference to any one Evangelist. I plan to edit the post for better clarity, so I may need to get back to you again. Don
Jan
9
revised What does “sit” mean in the scripture “The prostitute who sits on many waters.”
cleared up a citation
Jan
9
revised What does “sit” mean in the scripture “The prostitute who sits on many waters.”
correction
Jan
8
answered What does “sit” mean in the scripture “The prostitute who sits on many waters.”
Jan
8
comment Why is a seer called a prophet?
@GoneQuiet: My comments about the Mosaic Law were not meant to be offense. Quite the opposite. Many of the commandments in the ML were thousands of years ahead of their time. The dietary restrictions, for example, given as they were in a largely pre-scientific age (with no refrigeration, no concept of germs, poor sanitary conditions, etc.) saved perhaps millions of lives IF people obeyed them. That's what I meant when I said God always has a witness to the truth in every generation, whether via the prophetic word or commandments, lessons from history or wisdom literature . . ..
Jan
8
comment Why is a seer called a prophet?
@GoneQuiet: Oh, I forgot. The part of my unedited answer which talks about the "erratic" (poor word choice?) nature of prophetic utterances was not meant as a slight to prophets or prophecies, but simply to suggest that there was a certain unpredictability regarding the who, what, when, where, how, and why of the prophetic word. It always came, of course, according to God's time and timing, but even then it came with a measure of unpredictability. IOW, true prophecy came only at the instigation of YHWH and always for His, not the prophets', purposes.
Jan
8
answered What is the context in Mark and Luke as regards the buying and preparing of the spices?
Jan
7
comment Why is a seer called a prophet?
@GoneQuiet: No offense intended. I not only tend to ramble, but I forget the site is not exclusively Christian. In future, I'll either stick to the Tanakh when answering Qs based on a text therein, or I'll preface the Christian ramifications/applications of my answer (if I deem them apt) with these words: "The following material will likely be of interest only to Christians and is based on the doctrine of the Analogy of Scripture which to some Christians assumes the Bible comprises both the Tanakh and the New Testament." I promise to cut and paste this caveat whenever appropriate. Howzzat?
Jan
7
revised In Luke 1:62 it states they made signs for Zechariah but he could hear just not speak so why make signs?
I removed an offensive and ill-conceived sermon
Jan
6
comment In Luke 1:62 it states they made signs for Zechariah but he could hear just not speak so why make signs?
@JackDouglas: I've edited my post, perhaps for the better. I have a feeling that once a post gets a couple DVs, a hydraulic effect kicks in which causes people to read the post with a jaundiced eye, so to speak. Nevertheless, I enjoyed getting back into the text and was blessed by doing so. If as a result of my post more people immersed themselves in the text, then perhaps the DVs were well worth it! Don
Jan
6
revised In Luke 1:62 it states they made signs for Zechariah but he could hear just not speak so why make signs?
expanded the answer to include some additional, relevant insights
Jan
6
comment Why is Wisdom personified as a woman?
@MarkEdward: Thanks for your comments. I'm still stinging from some rebukes I've received recently about my failure to "show my work," hence the somewhat snide remark, which I've excised. As for the PC references, I've excised them as being irrelevant. As for linking the woman-wisdom to other uses of female personification, I do this to prevent eisegesis. The OP's question focuses on Proverbs, but that book is but one of 66, and a literary device one author uses in one book of Scripture is often used by another author elsewhere. Such linking is encouraged in any thoroughgoing hermeneutic.
Jan
6
revised Why is Wisdom personified as a woman?
Incorporated some suggestions submitted by a commenter.
Jan
6
comment Why is a seer called a prophet?
@Bagpipes: Thanks. Happy new year to you. I edited the answer a bit. In my haste, I neglected to excise some words I thought I had, but hadn't!
Jan
6
revised Why is a seer called a prophet?
judicious editing here and there, especially words I thought I'd edited but hadn't