690 reputation
16
bio website facebook.com/Heterodoxus
location NE FL USA
age 68
visits member for 1 year, 3 months
seen Jul 21 at 23:13

Former licensed mainline Protestant pulpiteer and revivalist now retired armchair NT Gospels textual critic.


May
15
comment What does “The earth opened its mouth” mean?
How one understands Rev. 12:15 depends on how one interprets the key nouns therein. The verse is, of course, metaphorical and there are several possibilities as to how στοματος ("mouth") might be understood.
Apr
24
comment Is Romans 1:17 ambiguous?
OK, then I'm inclined toward the variously interpreted Habb. 2:4 that I interpret to read: "but the just [righteous Jew] by his faith shall live". That reading to which Paul alluded is, IMO, more in keeping with his Pharisaical training, leanings, and spin.
Apr
24
comment Is Romans 1:17 ambiguous?
Also according to Dan Wallace: "The nature of the 'righteousness' described here and the force of the genitive θεοῦ ('of God') which follows have been much debated" (NET Bible @ Rom. 1:17, notes 35-38). Understanding it seems to depend on which understanding of 1) the genitive θεοῦ, and 2) the phrase ἐκ πίστεως εἰς πίστιν one prefers. In that sense, then, Rom. 1:17 is (as you asked in the title of this thread) ambiguous.
Apr
13
comment Understanding Jesus' apparent lie in John 7:8
@Wikis: a typo, no; a spurious alteration to the text after Porphyry's accusation that Jesus lied, possibly.
Mar
8
comment What does “torture” mean in Matthew 18:34?
@Davïd: wouldn't that depend on how one probes the evidence at hand? OK, so ΤΟΙCΒΑCΑΝΙCΤΑΙC is the common, invariable reading. Nevertheless, that reading is based upon codex Vaticanus, while any reading after that (Sinaiticus and later mss) is parroted. And if the current belief is that the accepted common reading is based upon codex Sinaiticus (as you said above), then the basis for that common reading is an inaccuracy that might leave the believer standing at the edge of a precarious precipice.
Mar
8
comment Does the use of “when” rather than “if” in Matthew 6 imply a necessity?
@Dan: by definition, footnotes are useful for making notes (obviously), or for adding contextual details or minor comments; citations are optional. Footnotes are especially useful if a writer wants readers to take them at their word. Nevertheless, and (again) for brevity, I rarely use footnotes in online forum postings and encourage participants to: 1) do their own research, and 2) draw their own conclusions as to the accuracy of something I've posted. Also, the cites I made in my answer (see above) are appropriate and useful for those purposes.
Mar
8
comment What does “torture” mean in Matthew 18:34?
@Davïd: P25, dated approx. to B and version 1 of א. Why uncials? Because I prefer earliest reading for its respective probative evidentiary value rather than orthodox (commonly accepted, "common," churchy) reading. Now, if I'm wrong, then prove me wrong; if not, let's move on :)
Mar
7
comment Does the use of “when” rather than “if” in Matthew 6 imply a necessity?
Acknowledged. But, since there are multiple reputable web sites where patristic evidences can be located, and primarily for brevity's sake, I prefer to leave it to the reader to make their own authentication(s).
Mar
7
comment What does “torture” mean in Matthew 18:34?
@Davïd: my analogy is apropos and based on earlier content of Matt. 18:34 as seen in codex Vaticanus (ΤΟΙCΒΑCΑΝΙCΤΑΙC, τοῖς βασανισταῖς), which was later copied in Sinaiticus.
Mar
7
comment Are there two different types of “tongues” spoken about in the NT?
@jirehpryor: cp. P74 01 02 03 04 05 08 044 18 33 81 323 424 614 945 1175 1241 1505 1739S
Mar
7
comment Are there two different types of “tongues” spoken about in the NT?
@jirehpryor: Acts 2:6, 8 has fem. sing. dat. noun διαλεκτω for "language" in KJV).
Mar
7
comment Does the use of “when” rather than “if” in Matthew 6 imply a necessity?
@Dan: no, I didn't "consult their works in the original language". That's why I said "Apparently even some of the church fathers disagreed ...." after looking at, in this situastion, the reputable info furnished by laparola.net.
Jan
9
comment What do pronouns “their” in Mark 9:43-48 refer to?
Mark 9:44, 46 are absent in the older and best manuscripts (cp. א B C L Δ). In other mss, they repeat vs. 48, and were likely added by later scribes to "fill out the parallelism in the passage" (Constable, Expository Notes 2012). Robertson (Word Pictures in the NT) indicates vss. 44 and 46 found their way into the KJV via western and Byzantine mss.
Jan
9
comment Was the ending of Matthew 28 added later?
> Q1 & Q3: "no surviving copy of Matthew 28"? I found none. > > Q2: "ending added later"? Not according to available patristic > evidences, ca. II-III CE.
Dec
17
comment Does Nazarene Sect mean Nazarene Cult?
Generally, a "cult" lives apart from the mainstream of society and obeys a charismatic leader, while a "sect" is a dissenting faction within a larger religious group. Also generally, "cult" = unorthodox or (sometimes) fanatical, but "sect" is a type of "clique".
Oct
1
comment When Jesus bowed his head, was he committing suicide?
Perhaps, for "absolute clarity," you'll need to personally ask the One who performed the act? But, since crucifixion was a somewhat lengthy experience for some victims, the Gospel accounts seem clear: Jesus surrendered his life before he died from the effects of being cruelly executed in that manner.
Sep
27
comment When Jesus bowed his head, was he committing suicide?
@rhetorician-- you wrote: "he bowed His sacred head". In what Bible version did you find that?
Sep
16
comment What does it mean in Matthew 24:15 and Mark 13:14 when the text says, “Whoso readeth, let him understand”?
@H3br3wHamm3r81-- I began to ask if there's any verifiable extra-biblical evidence that the Romans desecrated the Temple as did the Syrians under Antiochus Epiphanes (ca. 175-164 B.C.), but I'll research that possibility before asking.
Sep
16
comment What does it mean in Matthew 24:15 and Mark 13:14 when the text says, “Whoso readeth, let him understand”?
@H3br3wHamm3r81-- That's one theory, but
Sep
15
comment What does it mean in Matthew 24:15 and Mark 13:14 when the text says, “Whoso readeth, let him understand”?
I see no need to "sit and wait" since the desecration of the Temple prophesied here (most likely that committed by Antiochus Epiphanes) has already occurred. But there are other interpretations. You can read them in a variety of biblical commentaries (available both commercially and for free online), then draw your own conclusion.