540 reputation
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bio website
location NE FL USA
age 68
visits member for 10 months
seen Apr 14 at 20:56

Former ordained and licensed mainstream Protestant pastor-evangelist become retired armchair theologist.


Apr
13
comment Understanding Jesus' apparent lie in John 7:8
@Wikis: a typo, no; a spurious alteration to the text after Porphyry's accusation that Jesus lied, possibly.
Apr
9
revised Understanding Jesus' apparent lie in John 7:8
added 155 characters in body
Apr
9
answered Understanding Jesus' apparent lie in John 7:8
Mar
8
comment What does “torture” mean in Matthew 18:34?
@Davïd: wouldn't that depend on how one probes the evidence at hand? OK, so ΤΟΙCΒΑCΑΝΙCΤΑΙC is the common, invariable reading. Nevertheless, that reading is based upon codex Vaticanus, while any reading after that (Sinaiticus and later mss) is parroted. And if the current belief is that the accepted common reading is based upon codex Sinaiticus (as you said above), then the basis for that common reading is an inaccuracy that might leave the believer standing at the edge of a precarious precipice.
Mar
8
comment Are there two different types of “tongues” spoken about in the NT?
@user2479-- 1: "they weren't parsing" (no need to parse for those who heard their native language spoken). 2: "under the 'dunamis' of the Holy Spirit" (this is supposition, and the correct term is "eCstatic expression"). 3: "the same 'unction' today" (remains 1 Cor 14; e.g., provide interpretation to confirm a non-native language is being spoken rather than incomprehensible gibberish because languages can be easily mimicked (see, e.g., youtube.com/watch?v=ybcvlxivscw; run time 00:01:44)).
Mar
8
comment Does the use of “when” rather than “if” in Matthew 6 imply a necessity?
@Dan: by definition, footnotes are useful for making notes (obviously), or for adding contextual details or minor comments; citations are optional. Footnotes are especially useful if a writer wants readers to take them at their word. Nevertheless, and (again) for brevity, I rarely use footnotes in online forum postings and encourage participants to: 1) do their own research, and 2) draw their own conclusions as to the accuracy of something I've posted. Also, the cites I made in my answer (see above) are appropriate and useful for those purposes.
Mar
8
comment What does “torture” mean in Matthew 18:34?
@Davïd: P25, dated approx. to B and version 1 of א. Why uncials? Because I prefer earliest reading for its respective probative evidentiary value rather than orthodox (commonly accepted, "common," churchy) reading. Now, if I'm wrong, then prove me wrong; if not, let's move on :)
Mar
7
comment Does the use of “when” rather than “if” in Matthew 6 imply a necessity?
Acknowledged. But, since there are multiple reputable web sites where patristic evidences can be located, and primarily for brevity's sake, I prefer to leave it to the reader to make their own authentication(s).
Mar
7
comment What does “torture” mean in Matthew 18:34?
@Davïd: my analogy is apropos and based on earlier content of Matt. 18:34 as seen in codex Vaticanus (ΤΟΙCΒΑCΑΝΙCΤΑΙC, τοῖς βασανισταῖς), which was later copied in Sinaiticus.
Mar
7
comment Are there two different types of “tongues” spoken about in the NT?
@jirehpryor: cp. P74 01 02 03 04 05 08 044 18 33 81 323 424 614 945 1175 1241 1505 1739S
Mar
7
comment Are there two different types of “tongues” spoken about in the NT?
@jirehpryor: Acts 2:6, 8 has fem. sing. dat. noun διαλεκτω for "language" in KJV).
Mar
7
comment Does the use of “when” rather than “if” in Matthew 6 imply a necessity?
@Dan: no, I didn't "consult their works in the original language". That's why I said "Apparently even some of the church fathers disagreed ...." after looking at, in this situastion, the reputable info furnished by laparola.net.
Mar
6
revised Are there two different types of “tongues” spoken about in the NT?
added 2 characters in body
Mar
6
answered Are there two different types of “tongues” spoken about in the NT?
Mar
6
answered Does the use of “when” rather than “if” in Matthew 6 imply a necessity?
Mar
1
answered What does “torture” mean in Matthew 18:34?
Feb
21
answered What is the meaning of “violence” in Matthew 11:12?
Feb
21
awarded  Supporter
Feb
12
answered What is the proper translation in English, for Pi Hahiroth.?
Jan
9
comment What do pronouns “their” in Mark 9:43-48 refer to?
Mark 9:44, 46 are absent in the older and best manuscripts (cp. א B C L Δ). In other mss, they repeat vs. 48, and were likely added by later scribes to "fill out the parallelism in the passage" (Constable, Expository Notes 2012). Robertson (Word Pictures in the NT) indicates vss. 44 and 46 found their way into the KJV via western and Byzantine mss.