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comment Are there any Biblical scholars/textual critics who think the Gospels originally are in Greek?
It is instructive to note that the charge against Jesus that was nailed to the cross was written in Hebrew, Latin and Greek. This suggests that all three languages were commonly understood. Furthermore, The Hebrew Scriptures had been translated into Greek in 250 B.C. and this translation would have been familiar to the people of the day. So, Greek was definitely a language that was well understood in that day.
comment Internal Evidence of Authorship of the Fourth Gospel
@BruceAlderman However, when the author of the Fourth Gospel refers to him, he refers to him quite often as "Simon Peter".
comment Internal Evidence of Authorship of the Fourth Gospel
@BruceAlderman Yes, he was called Peter a few times. Those times, however, seem to be on very specific occasions--Peter's confession of Jesus as the Christ and his reinstatement. When the authors refer to him in narrative, however, they call him simply "Peter" the vast majority of the times.
comment What is the best translation of πᾶς ἀνὴρ in 1 Cor 11:4?
I know that ἀνὴρ always means man/male. If the writer is intending to say "everyone", he will use anthropos.
comment Why is part of Luke 9:55-56 omitted in some Bible translations?
@user1361315 No, I haven't read that particular book. I have actually looked at the verses in question, though, and from that it is abundantly clear that no doctrine is ever in question.
comment What types of birth were meant by 'blood', 'will of the flesh', and 'will of man'?
So, natural descent would indicate being a descendant of Abraham, right? It seems that the will of another man could apply to circumcision, where a father would perform this on his infant son. Then the will/determination of oneself could relate to keeping the law. Does this seem to fit with what you're saying?