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seen Jul 18 at 20:52

Web developer; regular reader of biblical languages (Hebrew and Greek); an aspirant to both professional and exegetical disciplines.


Jun
12
comment Why does Numbers 29:39 (LXX) refer to “your salvation” instead of “peace offerings”?
This answer is a start on thinking about the larger question of why the LXX word choice in translating shelem. Perhaps you could open the issue in a new question. It would be too long for me to answer, so I won't raise that question. If it's too long for me to answer, I won't ask it here. But it might not be too long of an exploration for you to explore on this site. Regards.
Jun
12
comment Why does Numbers 29:39 (LXX) refer to “your salvation” instead of “peace offerings”?
Interesting observations on Gen. 26. This answer fits well with the larger discussion of LXX usage of soteriou vs. eirenikos for shelem. Does the covenant distinction you make here, with respect to the ways of translating "peace offerings" hold up throughout the historical books? Maybe beyond what you have time to look at, but may be interesting. Thanks.
Jun
12
comment Why does Numbers 29:39 (LXX) refer to “your salvation” instead of “peace offerings”?
The intention in posting this question was based on a false assumption of an anomaly. I had not parsed a word (soteria) correctly, therefore looked it up incorrectly and thought I had found an anomoly! So I will accept my answer below that corrects my oversight. However, this question also begs the question of the translation choice of soteriou for shelem and I appreciate that a few more lines of answers have added depth to the question I would have been asking, had I understood my first question! If that makes sense.
Jun
12
comment Why does Numbers 29:39 (LXX) refer to “your salvation” instead of “peace offerings”?
Richard Averbeck in NIDOTTE, s.v. "shelem", states that it has been taken to mean "a sacrifice that brings salvation" (cf. the same in EDNT), but Averbeck suggests the possibility of reading "a sacrifice that celebrates salvation". He also notes that in 1 Sam. - 2kgs eirenikos is used, instead of soteriou (i.e.1 Sam.11:15). Soteriou, being used in Leviticus and here in Numbers. This still does not answer why, or in what manner the translation choice was made. That is a good question. Perhaps the answers posted here are a start on that question, and could be followed up with further study.
Jun
11
comment Why does Numbers 29:39 (LXX) refer to “your salvation” instead of “peace offerings”?
Note: soteria in Num. 29:39 is the adjective, not the noun. I edited this answer to correct that remaining false assumption.
Jun
11
comment Why does Numbers 29:39 (LXX) refer to “your salvation” instead of “peace offerings”?
Thanks for your answer here Tim, but I think we both missed it. I've explained more in my answer below.
Apr
21
comment What does “break bread” mean in Acts 20:7 and 11?
Jer 16:7 [LXX] is the only verse that I find in the OT that has the verb for "break" and the object "bread" in Greek: καὶ οὐ μὴ κλασθῇ ἄρτος ἐν πένθει αὐτῶν εἰς παράκλησιν ἐπὶ τεθνηκότι οὐ ποτιοῦσιν αὐτὸν ποτήριον εἰς παράκλησιν ἐπὶ πατρὶ καὶ μητρὶ αὐτοῦ. In several places, a derived word refers to "pieces of bread" (i.e. Ps.102:9).
Apr
21
comment What does “break bread” mean in Acts 20:7 and 11?
When this Greek combination of "break" (κλάω) and "bread" (ἄρτος) is used it appears to me in a brief perusal of each case to imply the "sharing of a meal", with perhaps the emphasis on the division of the meal (to be shared by many), coming with the use of "break" which appears in some use in the LXX to translate "shattering" (i.e., of one's enemies). Perhaps other lit. would indicate if this is an idiomatic phrase, or relating to meetings of associations. However, the plain alternative would be to use the verb "to eat" "bread", which has less emphasis on the event of a special shared meal.
Apr
18
comment Is there any significance behind Jesus' use of the word “love” in “John 21:15-17”
D.A. Carson's short book on Exegetical Fallacies provides a specific answer to this question. He illustrates a fallacy which is committed when too much emphasis is placed on the difference in verbs used in this passage. I refer to that book for this answer, but I think @swaschek has also provided a very good answer below.
Apr
17
comment To what extent is Psalm 51:4 poetic exaggeration?
I enjoyed your question. God's response to David surely has both representative (corporate) and individual implications, theologically speaking; but my answer does not (intentionally) address that. Maybe this comment answers yours(?).
Apr
8
comment To what degree is understanding the feelings of a biblical author necessary in exegesis?
@Mike. Clarification. There's no misunderstanding of the WCF in my comment: I stated that "If the question is about...God's emotions...in exegesis, then that would involve the the attributes of God; and...'God is without passions'." Thereby, I simply indicate that if the degree of God's emotions is in the question, the doctrine of impassibiliy pertains to the answer - as does anthropopathism. Your quote proves that relevance. Additionally, how we should attribute emotions to God, has been raised in some notable Presbyterian debates (as the ordination exam of Dr. Gordon Clark).
Apr
7
comment To what degree is understanding the feelings of a biblical author necessary in exegesis?
I believe God used human authors, and when human emotions are applied to God I understand it as "anthropopathism". If the question is about learning how much God's emotions should be weighed in exegesis, then that would involve the the attributes of God; and in the protestant reformed confessions (that's what I'm most familiar with), the statement comes up "God is without passions" (i.e., Westminster Confession of Faith 2.1). However, if you are looking for the hermeneutical term, my favorite is a "Biblical-Historical" method leading to a communicative hermeneutic of encounter -knowing God.
Apr
5
comment Where can I find Greek and Hebrew plain text sources?
Jackpot, I didn't even see the select Box...great!
Apr
5
comment Where can I find Greek and Hebrew plain text sources?
Hey, does the unbound Bible have full text output for download? I had not seen it there when I was searching this answer. Thanks - and maybe we'll catch up on your project sometime...
Apr
5
comment Where can I find Greek and Hebrew plain text sources?
Ahh, swasheck, I would be interested in your process for sblgnt/tauber/sql. That might not be par for this site, but many of our professors in Biblical Studies would value the sources for doing this stuff (in my opinion of their interests!).
Apr
5
comment Where can I find Greek and Hebrew plain text sources?
Establishing the (source) text is always a primary step in Exegesis, which is integral to Hermeneutics. The textual basis is always an implicit part of doing Biblical Studies. If the Nestle-Aland text differs from both the UBS4 and the Textus Receptus, there are textual reasons (manuscript evidence) for it. Therefore, the textual study is a part of understanding the translation and theological issues that have branched from it. Good texts are Gold (even digital). For some purposes, such as combining texts into new Polyglots for study, digital texts make possible what used to take a lifetime.
Apr
5
comment Where can I find Greek and Hebrew plain text sources?
I wasn't able to yet create a tag for "source texts", but I would have tagged this question, primarily under that label. There are a few university projects dedicated to keeping the electronic text, and all the "critical" editions of texts today are using electronic sources and software - not to mention efforts to advance distribution and translation.
Apr
5
comment What role does the Holy Spirit play in hermeneutics?
Gerhard Maier's Biblical Hermeneutics, published by Crossway, trans. from German by Robert Yarbrough handles this subject excellently. I do not want to start a debate, but this question could have a book written about it. Having read or reviewed very many texts on (Christian) Biblical Hermeneutics, I have to say, check that one out.
Apr
3
comment Genesis 3:12: What is the underlying Hebrew word translated into English as “with me” (in KJV)?
@noam 1+ for "extra mater lectionis" and for bringing Joüon into the discussion. Here's one example to show where Biblical language QA could also be included in this site - ?
Apr
2
comment Where can I find Greek and Hebrew plain text sources?
I have emailed that site to see if they can help me locate it on their site. This is close. But two things: html has too much markup, also I need the vowel pointing (I see now they have a file with it). BTW, I like those audio files on mechon-mamre.org.