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comment What is the traditional understanding of God's Marriage Contract(Ketubah) with Israel?
@user2479 I am sick today will respond after doctor or meds or whatever
Jul
20
comment What is the traditional understanding of God's Marriage Contract(Ketubah) with Israel?
@user2479 sorry but that is the common answer to find your groups specific answer will be difficult given the pool from which you draw on the stack exchange. If you want to hear about Abraham and Jacob and inception I will alter the answer but I have company today
Jul
20
comment What is the traditional understanding of God's Marriage Contract(Ketubah) with Israel?
@Susan is that good?
May
8
comment Luke 7:33 - Why didn't John the Baptist eat bread?
@ScottS he could have said cookies and chocolate it isn't cross referenced anywhere else.
May
7
comment Heb. 1:2: What is the significance of υἱῷ being anarthrous?
again you present an answer then you reevaluate and come to a diffierent conclusion you should summerize at the begining your exact thoughts rather than saving it for the end.
May
7
comment Heb. 1:2: What is the significance of υἱῷ being anarthrous?
funny you answered in the way which i said would not be a bible based interpretation then you mixed it up and said your initial response was wrong?...i think your answer is a little mixed up in general
Apr
3
comment What does Genesis 3:16 literally say?
@warren Hebrew interpolated Study Bible Westminster Leningrad Codex albesh.net
Apr
3
comment What does Genesis 3:16 literally say?
Yes but unlike English the verbs do not normally contain the conjugation in themselves. (Admittedly "you" is sometimes implied for commands) I found a section on Jussive Imperitive and Cohortave in my introduction to Bible syntax by Waltke and O'Connor. Thank you again
Apr
2
comment What does Genesis 3:16 literally say?
Ok it took me a while to find the person aspect of the word which is indeed 1st? which book can i read about that in?
Mar
31
comment Grammar-Literal Translation of Genesis 1:3 and 12:3
@DanO'Day thank you yes I agree that Hiphil is causative and Qal is not and that we must approximate Hebrew grammar in English. As far as I can see there are no verbs which totally lack causality and still convey what X is doing in English when read by a lay person.
Mar
31
comment Grammar-Literal Translation of Genesis 1:3 and 12:3
ok I do agree the permissive is not fully accurate because it implies indirect causation. But my problem is saying "God said" with no qualifiers implies direct causation. In English "God said" means the same thing as God caused himself to say.
Mar
30
comment Grammar-Literal Translation of Genesis 1:3 and 12:3
@DanO'Day given answer to this question Is the Lord permissively or actively causing evil in Amos 3:6? if that Qal can be permissive I thought it was the next logical step to look at the other Qals which stands to reason might be permissive as well but I guess as you can see from the down votes that its not a popular idea. :)
Mar
19
comment God and Passive Hebrew tense and aspect
I'm sorry I should have been more precise in my question and in explaining my example but I'm new. Gen 4:11 has a cain being cursed by God in a qal passive participle. Others have said qal is simple with no implied causation. Gen 12:3 is a better example God blesses directly in Piel and indirectly in Niphal but curses only in qal imperfect similarly in ex 15:26 qal imperfect is used to "put sickness" as best i can tell this is called jussive or permissive. Is. 45:7 is another qal but active thats generally regarded as permissive. Like I said I'm new and I'd really like your feedback.
Mar
19
comment Does the qal in Amos 3:6 automatically imply causation?
thank you i now understand that Qal's do not imply causation and can be permissive
Mar
18
comment God and Passive Hebrew tense and aspect
The Word also has a much less expensive Hebrew Morphology module.