1,642 reputation
118
bio website angelfire.com/md3/…
location Maryland
age 56
visits member for 1 year, 7 months
seen Oct 12 at 3:29

I converted to Orthodox Judaism in 1980. My conversion story was originally published in the Baltimore Jewish Times and was reprinted in its entirety by About.com and in excerpt form by Rabbi Maurice Lamm in his book Becoming a Jew. I learned Daf Yomi for 10 years completing the entire 11th Cycle and getting half way through the 12th. I stopped shortly after being diagnosed with Parkinson's Disease and recognized I could not stay up for late night Daf classes nor keep up if I did not. For the 20th anniversary of my conversion, I decided to teach the last daf of Kesubos and contacted Art Scroll for help, as they had not yet published their translation of that daf. Rabbi Yehezkel Danziger surprised me by suggesting that I try translating the page for publication in order to make my celebration "more special." It took me 3 months to translate the main text and the Rashi, but I submitted my work and, after much editing, received an editorial credit in Volume III of Art Scroll's Kesuvos translation. I have been a frequent contributor to the About.com Judaism board and specialized in counter-missionary posts. My website, "A Primer: Why Jews Cannot Believe in Jesus" is designed as a quick introduction to major points I tend to make when dealing with missionaries. In my secular life, I am an attorney for the Federal Government.


Oct
7
comment What is the meaning of the “inverted nuns” (׆ … ׆) around Numbers 10:35-36?
You cut off Rashi's explanation. He adds: "So why was it written here? To make a break between one punishment and the next… as it is stated in [chapter 16 of Talmud Shabbath , commencing with the words] 'All the Sacred Scriptures.'"
Oct
7
revised Did English-language translations describe Adam and Eve as eating apples?
Added the word "any" to modify "English-language translation" (and made translation singular).
Oct
2
reviewed Close What did Jesus likely say in John 8:58?
Oct
2
answered What does the word 'evil' mean in In Isaiah 45.7
Oct
2
comment Why is the observation that “it was good” missing on the second day?
@majnemɪzdæn I assume we're writing for generalists, not Bible experts. We're supposedly creating a resource for amateurs.
Oct
1
comment Are the divine name and its contracted form somehow unique or are they truly inter-changeable?
You might want to review the answers at judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/23463/…
Oct
1
answered Does kôkābîm (כוֹכָבִים) in Book of Daniel refer to any bright objects in the sky?
Oct
1
comment Why is the observation that “it was good” missing on the second day?
@majnemɪzdæn I inserted a link -- Rashi's easy to do that; others are harder, especially if you want English.
Oct
1
revised Why is the observation that “it was good” missing on the second day?
Edited to ad link to the Rashi commentary.
Sep
30
answered Why is the observation that “it was good” missing on the second day?
Sep
30
awarded  Explainer
Sep
30
answered What was the 'reproach of Egypt' referred to in Joshua 5:9?
Sep
18
answered Are there differences in how the Spirit empowers people?
Sep
17
comment Who or what is Rahab in Job?
@NoamSienna See the Rashi to Job 9:13 where he notes: "Egypt is called Rahab, as it is said (Isa. 30:7): 'Therefore, I called this, ‘They are haughty (רהב) idlers,’' by dint of their haughtiness, for they said, 'Who is the Lord? etc.' (Exod. 5:2)."
Sep
8
comment Accurate translation of הִתְעֵתֶים in Jeremiah 42:20
It strikes me that Jeremiah is simply saying, at the risk of paraphrasing in the modern vernacular: "you're fooling yourselves people. You wanted me to intervene with God for your sake, but you were never willing to do what He asked ... observe the commandments! Well now you will get what you deserve."
Sep
8
comment Accurate translation of הִתְעֵתֶים in Jeremiah 42:20
The key word to answer your question is b'nafshotechem which means "your souls." So literally, the phrase is translated most correctly by the JPS -- you have deceived your own souls. In context, the phrase hitahtim b'nafshotechem appears to be an idiom for lying to yourself, or fooling yourself. I will look to see if I can find how early Aramaic translations, contemporary to the Temple, translated it. I doubt I'll have it today.
Sep
8
comment Accurate translation of הִתְעֵתֶים in Jeremiah 42:20
JPS (1955) translates it "For ye have dealt deceitfully against your own souls ..."
Sep
5
comment How to reconcile God's promise to Abraham with the current Jewish population?
Welcome! Your answer could be improved by citation to the rabbinic source you used.
Sep
5
comment How to reconcile God's promise to Abraham with the current Jewish population?
@fmshyanguya Apparently someone disagrees. I got a downvote w/o explanation.
Sep
2
answered Why does the ESV use “surely” in Genesis 2:16 when all others say “freely”?