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Dec
21
revised In Isaiah 14:12 did the King James translator make a mistake using the term Lucifer to describe morning star?
Amended last paragraph to address issues raised by comments.
Dec
17
comment In Isaiah 14:12 did the King James translator make a mistake using the term Lucifer to describe morning star?
Judaism rejects the existence of any entity that God cannot control. God created both good and evil because they give purpose to free will. USA. 45:7; Deut 30:15-20. If you accept that Satan acts on his own authority, then you have elevated him to be a god, and you've concluded God is not all-powerful. Christianity can see it that way, but Judaism does not. Dualism is idolatry.
Dec
16
comment In Isaiah 14:12 did the King James translator make a mistake using the term Lucifer to describe morning star?
The book of Enoch is not recognized by Judaism nor is the NT.
Dec
16
comment Jacob's name is Israel. So why is he still called Jacob?
According to Jewish tradition, Israel reverts to Jacob each he has lost his prophetic abilities, for whatever reason. So when you see the name Israel, Jacob is speaking for God or with the Divinity at his side. When he is Jacob, such as when Joseph is presumed dead, he is not involved with Heavenly matters, but only his own human urges and grief.
Dec
16
answered In Isaiah 14:12 did the King James translator make a mistake using the term Lucifer to describe morning star?
Dec
16
comment In Isaiah 14:12 did the King James translator make a mistake using the term Lucifer to describe morning star?
Welcome! This is a good first question -- I had no idea that the KJV translated morning star that way (it's wrong, btw). I'll be posting an answer.
Dec
16
comment Was Joseph, Imhotep of Egypt? Imhotep in hieroglyphs is “He who comes in peace.”
Welcome to Biblical hermeneutics! I think this is a very interesting question, and I gave you an up vote. Thanks for posting.
Dec
14
reviewed No Action Needed Is “you” in plural or in singular in Gen. 3:3?
Dec
14
reviewed Close Were priests prohibited from tearing their garments
Dec
14
comment Were priests prohibited from tearing their garments
If you take out the NT reference, you have a good question for the Stackexchange Judaism site, Mi Yodea. The quick answer, I believe, is that the priests garments were not their own (at least not the ones they wore in the Temple), but belonged to the Temple. Therefore they had no right to rend someone else's property. When they left work and put on their own clothes they could certainly rend them at that time. Generally, today, in Orthodox circles, the rending of garments occurs just before burial.
Dec
14
answered What is the point of Ezekiel not mourning his wife?
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Jul
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comment How to understand Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13
@mbm29414 Our sages taught (Sanhedrin 105a) that the righteous of all nations shall have a place in the world to come. The balance of the scale seems to favor the Noachide because he has only 7 commandments to follow, and the Jew has up to 613 commandments (not all of which apply to any individual Jew). However, because Jews have more commandments, they have more opportunities to achieve higher levels of holiness. But since we do not know how God weighs any one commandment, we assume that our good and bad deeds are even and our next good or bad choice could decide our final judgment.
Jul
6
revised How to understand Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13
Amended to bring in insights following the Supreme Court decision on same-sex marriages.