Monica Cellio

6,989 reputation

21545

bio	website	cellio.livejournal.com
	location	Pittsburgh PA
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visits	member for	1 year, 7 months
	seen	23 mins ago
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	6,989 reputation	bio	website	cellio.livejournal.com	visits	member for	1 year, 7 months
21545 badges		location	Pittsburgh PA		seen	23 mins ago

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Oct 2	answered	Does Rashi's interpretation of Jephthah's fate hold water?
Oct 2	comment	Is LXX “Enoch pleased God” a reasonable idiomatic translation of Hebrew “Enoch walked with God”? Good analysis. The problem (IMO) with translating halakh as "pleased God" is that it confuses cause with consequence. The way to please God is to walk in His ways. Without that connection, one might think that there are other ways to please God -- which may be true for daughter religions, but isn't the case for Jews in Tanakh.
Sep 30	awarded	Custodian
Sep 30	reviewed	Reviewed What are the “stones of fire” in Ezekiel 28?
Sep 30	comment	Does Romans 13:8 include a prohibition of taking loans? Without any broader context my first reaction to these verses is that he's saying "don't delay payment" (possibly hearkening back to torah passages requiring that workers be paid the same day).
Sep 30	comment	David and Goliath: David's Reasons For Fighting Good analysis, but it does raise the question of why David asked about the reward if he didn't intend to claim it.
Sep 28	answered	Ecclesiastes 4:12 A cord of three strands is not quickly broken
Sep 24	comment	Why is Israel referred to with a male pronoun in Jeremiah 31:10? But to answer @JonEricson's question, verse 10 in your link (verse 9 in mine) does contain "Israel", yes, and a singular masculine reference, which does not surprise me. Every noun in Hebrew has gender; there's no neuter. I hope OP will clarify the question -- is it something about this passage, or a more general question about refering to Israel? Edit: oh wait, I see the problem I think: יְקַבְּצֶנּוּ
Sep 24	comment	Why is Israel referred to with a male pronoun in Jeremiah 31:10? Oh interesting; whence the verse mismatch? See mechon-mamre.org/p/pt/pt1131.htm#10 (I knew there were differences in psalms between some editions, but I didn't know there was a diff in prophets!) But wait, mechon-mamre is JPS too! What's going on?
Sep 24	comment	Why is Israel referred to with a male pronoun in Jeremiah 31:10? Also, "Israel" doesn't appear in that verse. Is that the one you meant?
Sep 23	revised	Does “foundations of the earth” in Job 38:4 refer to just the earth, or is it a metaphor for more? added last paragraph (minor tweaks elsewhere)
Sep 23	answered	Does “foundations of the earth” in Job 38:4 refer to just the earth, or is it a metaphor for more?
Sep 23	awarded	Custodian
Sep 23	reviewed	Reviewed Why didn't the Septuagint translate 'ahabah to eros?
Sep 21	awarded	Custodian
Sep 20	comment	What else can “Fifteen cubits from above” in Gen 7:20 mean? The interpretation is demonstrably not "completely obvious" since no one else seems to share it. Without sources you're just asking us to take your word for it. Ron, can you support your interpretation?
Sep 20	revised	What else can “Fifteen cubits from above” in Gen 7:20 mean? retag
Sep 20	comment	What is the referent for “brother” in 1 John 4:20-21? Anyone who believes it's always easier to love those you've seen than those you haven't does not have in-laws or "that weird cousin". :-)
Sep 19	comment	What else can “Fifteen cubits from above” in Gen 7:20 mean? That's a really good point about the ark rubbing up against "the dome of the sky" if we go with OP's interpretation.
Sep 19	comment	What does “invoke the name of the LORD” mean in Genesis? Partial dup? hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/495/… (This question focuses on Gen 4:26, so not a complete dup.)