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I'm basically a self-taught, now inactive, web designer who still seeks to learn more about css (and some javascript) while pushing it to its limits: all as a part-time hobby between my Ph.D. studies in Systematic Theology. For those interacting with me on Biblical Hermeneutics, this meta question of mine will reveal a lot about where I come from regarding that topic.


Aug
24
comment Is there a possibility of a gap of time between Gen 1:1 and 1:2?
I've significantly edited the question. If others vote to reopen, then you can post your "answer" points (with additional argument to support them) as an answer. Please note that you will likely get answers that do not believe it is valid (and hopefully give their arguments as to why). That's one thing that makes BH.SE interesting, is each viewpoint can put its "best foot forward" in trying to represent an answer to a question. Again, the thought/argument behind the answer is what is important here, more so than the conclusion. We are trying to see how each other thinks regarding these issues.
Aug
24
comment Does Isaiah 7:14 indicate that the young woman is already pregnant?
@Susan: I added a discussion about the article. The lack of article is not a barrier, but can complicate the discussion (however, see Gesensius' insights in my expanded note 6).
Aug
20
comment What is the difference between a “literal” and “literalistic” interpretation of Scripture?
@Soldarnal I thought this question might have arisen from that exchange, and that compelled me to answer it. Glad I could meet your expectations.
Aug
19
comment Was Adam created as a fully grown man or as a baby?
@Flimzy: I could word that better, thanks for pointing that out.
Aug
18
comment Was Adam created as a fully grown man or as a baby?
@Flimzy: It is a common misconception that a literal hermeneutic denies figurative language (it does not). Rather, it only moves to a figurative understanding based on context and after evaluating the text as a factual statement in its own right as a possible literal rendering. The Psalm passage, besides being in the Psalms (which as a genre uses much figurative language), is from David, which Scripture declares was born of a woman, so there is much more evidence it is to be taken figuratively. I cannot expound further in a comment, but that is the short answer to your question.
Aug
1
comment Can αδελφοί refer to cousins?
@caseyr547 While my answer leaves "cousin" open from a linguistic stand point, I would be interested in seeing how a Catholic handles the contextual points to argue that cousin should be preferred over brother. Such varying arguments help the site. (I wouldn't mind seeing a Jewish perspective on what they would take the NT text to mean either).
Jul
30
comment Can αδελφοί refer to cousins?
@Susan: I tweaked the wording of the first bullet point and added a footnote describing what I meant. Basically, my bullet points ascend in the number of the group being included by the term.
Jul
26
comment Isaiah 46:10 and the implications of verse 11: Do any modern theologians dare pay attention to verse 11?
The Bible does not have many true runon sentences, but does have many compound and/or complex sentences. I've updated with a discussion of the sentence structure of the Hebrew in the passage.
Jul
25
comment What evidence exists to show that the Galatians could understand Greek?
Two things about the link you give: (1) it refers to Galilee/Palestine (which might apply to Galatia, but you must make a case); (2) it argues opposite your view, as the paragraph following your quote states: "However, the evidence showing that reading and writing were widely practiced in Jesus’ age grows with every discovery of a new inscription. Much ... comes from religious and governmental circles, but a great deal of it does not," and concludes "that writing and reading were widely practiced in the Palestine of Jesus’ day."
Jul
21
comment Which of Paul's letters were written to strangers?
@Jas3.1 Assuming Ephesians was to Ephesus, there is no doubt Paul knew them, as he spent two years there (Act 19:1, 8-10). Also v.10 ("all the residents of Asia" ESV) favors knowing some from Colossae (in Asia). Not that v.10 means Paul personally taught everyone in Asia, but his teaching was being discussed. Important thinkers in Colossae likely went to hear Paul personally, thus some were probably known. Philemon's salvation seems due to Paul (Phlm 19), and if Archippus (Phlm 2) is the same as in Collosae (Col 4:17), more connection.
Jul
16
comment Is the Son of Man passage in Matthew 25 a reference to 1 Enoch?
Let us continue this discussion in chat.
Jul
16
comment Is the Son of Man passage in Matthew 25 a reference to 1 Enoch?
That link speaks of Assumption of Moses issues in connecting (not having a manuscript having that passage is fairly critical). The reference to ten thousands of His saints in 1:9 could be more related to Dt 33:2, or as some say, Jewish traditions apart from Enoch itself (who would be drawing from the same traditions; making the tradition the link, not the text of 1 Enoch per se). So it should not boggle your mind too much that there are numerous reasons to also doubt direct connections.
Jul
16
comment Is the Son of Man passage in Matthew 25 a reference to 1 Enoch?
The problem is the facts are rather loose about the connections.
Jul
16
comment Is the Son of Man passage in Matthew 25 a reference to 1 Enoch?
FYI: You state, "I know of no one who denies that Jude (the half-brother of Jesus) refers to the very section of 1 Enoch in question," yet there are many who question the connection. A quick internet search found one here (Church of Christ perspective, so not even my same camp). I'm sure I could dredge up some who do flatly deny it (which would also be unprovable unless better evidence for dating proved later date of Enoch).
Jul
16
comment Is the Son of Man passage in Matthew 25 a reference to 1 Enoch?
@FrankLuke: Agreed that "a work doesn't have to be canonical to be quoted," but at the same time, such "quotes" need not actually be references from those works at all (unless specifically so noted, such as Paul's reference to the Greek philosophers). My argument here is that everything exists in the OT for Christ to make the statements He did about the Son of Man and the throne without the necessity of having any actual literary relation at all to 1 Enoch. Hence, possible, but unprovable; and also, as you said, why Enoch can have gotten some of it right (using the same OT source).
Jul
14
comment Is the “7th seal” opened before the “6th seal” book of Revelation
@Caleb I leave it to those who believe those other views to offer their version of a defense for this (I do not believe them, and also note mine is futurist), though what I do know of them falls in my broad statement that 6 is contemporaneous or before 7 (just identifying different events/concepts in association with the seals vs. the futurist).
Jul
13
comment Is the Son of Man passage in Matthew 25 a reference to 1 Enoch?
@Susan No, I did not. Corrected.
Jul
11
comment What's the difference between a “lying tongue” and a “false witness” in Proverbs 6?
Christ's challenge of "without sin" reflected on the fact that if she was caught in the act as they said (v.4), then where was the man who was with her (who was also to be stoned per Lev 20:10 and Dt 22:22)? Somebody was lying, because either (1) she was not caught in the act, or (2) one of them was the guilty party with her and they all knew it, or (3) they intentionally disobeyed the law letting the man go and did not want to admit it. All involve a lie if they proceeded without the man. Anyway, this is not the place to debate, but I wanted you to know why I found the argument unconvincing.
Jul
11
comment What's the difference between a “lying tongue” and a “false witness” in Proverbs 6?
I understand what you are stating your understanding is. I'm just not seeing how its supported by Dt 19:16-19, when it appears that one can be a malicious witness, yet not a false witness (and only if one is both does one incur the penalty themselves... i.e. speaking lies for malicious purposes). Jesus' challenge in Jn 8:7 was based on Dt 17:6-7 (the witnesses were to be the first to cast), it did not matter what Christ had to say (per their question v.5), because He could not condemn her without their testimony (v.9-11), not Himself being a witness nor a judge (at that time). Cont....
Jul
10
comment What's the difference between a “lying tongue” and a “false witness” in Proverbs 6?
Problem: The malicious (חָמָס) witness (Dt 19:16) is not automatically false simply for having testified on his own. As v.18-19 show, the judge must inquire to determine if the witness is false (שֶׁ֫קֶר) or not (so malicious does not equal false). Further, when you say "Liars tell lies ... All liars are false witnesses, but not all false witnesses tell lies," I disagree, because (1) liars do not always lie (and all people lie sometime), and opposite you (2) "Not all liars are false witnesses (not all lies are about another), but all false witnesses tell a lie (else they are not false)."