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I'm basically a self-taught, now inactive, web designer who still seeks to learn more about css (and some javascript) while pushing it to its limits: all as a part-time hobby between my Ph.D. studies in Systematic Theology. For those interacting with me on Biblical Hermeneutics, this meta question of mine will reveal a lot about where I come from regarding that topic.


1d
comment What is the new covenant made with Jews/Israel in Jeremiah 31:31
I have a hard time agreeing with the close vote as "too broad." While certainly volumes have been written about Jer 31:31, it is but a single verse, and all the sub-questions relate to the interpretation of it. So if our site cannot handle trying to interpret a single verse, then we might as well close shop. It seems a summary answer can be given without getting too bogged down in extensive details. Of course, differing hermeneutics will probably give differing summaries, but that is a good thing.
Oct
22
comment Omission of 'fasting' in Mark 9:29
@kmote Thank you for your constructive criticism. I have updated my answer to propose a thesis on systematic omission of the wording, as I would agree that the topical connections to the other passages do tend to point away from accidental.
Oct
22
comment Omission of 'fasting' in Mark 9:29
@Davïd I added to my wording about the "average Joe." I do believe errors were more prone in that time because of this, and that seems to be the general point of why most of the variants were deemed to have arisen in that time. However, the same types of errors occurred whether by professionals or not.
Oct
21
comment Are the words “wife” and “woman” the same in Hebrew and Greek?
I believe the added possessive pronoun ("own woman"; τὴν ἑαυτοῦ γυναῖκα) and adjective ("own man"; τὸν ἴδιον ἄνδρα) in Greek is specifically the idiomatic way of guaranteeing the term is used for wife/husband. That is, the absence of them would leave the terms more open to the generic woman/man (though not necessarily, context is still important), but because of their addition then the 1 Cor 7:2 passage is certainly using the term in a spousal reference.
Oct
20
comment Omission of 'fasting' in Mark 9:29
I (of course) tend to agree with @JackDouglas here, but I have added further thoughts on this into my answer.
Oct
20
comment Omission of 'fasting' in Mark 9:29
+1 Good research on the "why," even if I disagree with the conclusion of omitting.
Oct
16
comment Which Greek NT passage has proven to have the most variant readings?
@Davïd: I've edited the question. Let me know if that is any more clear to you.
Oct
16
comment Which Greek NT passage has proven to have the most variant readings?
@JackDouglas: I see a "shopping" question as desiring a list, and not having a single answer (similar to what you mention here). My question should have but a single correct answer, technically a verse reference with some documentation to back it up (so I also would not classify it as "too broad," like one close vote has). I'm seeking an answer based on statistics, somewhat like this question.
Oct
15
comment Matthew originally written in Hebrew?
In my opinion (and I have my reasons), I generally consider the majority reading is the correct one (and a far more objective measure). Also, to clarify, "every word counts" is a bit misleading, since some words count more than others when determining the meaning of a text (e.g., the presence/absence of the article in some cases), and some variants more than others (spelling need not matter, e.g. color vs. colour). I hope that at least eliminates your confusion on my view (whether you agree or not).
Oct
15
comment Matthew originally written in Hebrew?
@publicstatic: My answer is "yes" we do have the "text" located "in a single book form now" (though the "text" would not need to be in a single book for it to still be preserved and useful), as the text exists as one of the few variants noted in any particular passage that has a variant (many do not) in the modern critical editions of the Greek NT. Those editions generally do not "flux" because of new textual information, but rather opinion of parameters for determining the best reading from the variants, but the text is still there.
Oct
15
comment What did Paul call Christians?
Great info! Realizing the books vary in length (some normalization based on length would be interesting), it is still intriguing to see the emphasis of ἐκκλησία for the Corinthians (35% in 1 Cor, 50% adding 2 Cor) dealing with issues of their assembly (1 Cor 1:10-17). Additionally, 35% of the uses of ἀδελφοί were in those two books also, as he tried to emphasize unity. Other similar things jump out: 24% of ἅγιοι in Eph, which deals with being and living sanctified, 18% of ἀδελφοί in 1 Thes with a church Paul had to leave quickly (Act 17:1-10, 1 Thes 2:17), showing his attachment and care.
Oct
14
comment What are the arguments used by literal interpreters of Ezekiel's temple (Ezek. 40-48)?
I'm not sure why this question had three close votes due to it being "systematic theology" related, when it clearly was asking a question about one type of interpretation of the later chapters of Ezekiel. However, I have modified the question which I hope fits the format of BH.SE better, with more emphasis on the particular interpretation in question. If my edits have taken away anything that you desired, please feel free to re-edit.
Oct
10
comment Is verse 114 of the Gospel of Thomas a later addition?
I voted to close, and weighed in on this meta answer with a comment that qualifies in my mind a special case that would allow direct examination of Gnostic texts, which this question does not meet. I had already previously upvoted Dan's list of texts, but would encourage others to weigh in on that meta thread as well.
Oct
9
comment What is meant in 1 Peter 3:21 when it says “baptism now saves you”
Welcome to BH.SE! I've edited the question, which I hope still captures your intent and also the version you were using to quote from (feel free to re-edit if needed). Given that you tagged it with "hermeneutical-approaches" to begin with, I guessed that you would like to see some various ways the clause is interpreted, along with trying to isolate the correct interpretation, so I clarified that (which I also hope was correctly understood by me).
Oct
9
comment What is the distinction between symbolic and apocalyptic interpretations of Ezekiel's temple vision?
@user2479: I'm sure there is :-).
Oct
8
comment What is the distinction between symbolic and apocalyptic interpretations of Ezekiel's temple vision?
@user2479: Yes the answer was nearly the entirety of my presentation (slightly reformatted). Just to clarify, I am millennial (during the millennium) view for Ezekiel's temple, not "post millennial." I did not think it appropriate with the question to offer a positive defense of that view here (perhaps in another question focused on that view another time), since the question was specifically regarding the differences between the two views. I only critiqued to show similarities and differences in what I would deem some of their problems.
Oct
4
comment To what do the “parchments” (and tangentially the “books”) refer in 2 Tim 4:13?
@MarkEdward: I attempted to exhaust the possible answers, what I am seeking is scriptural, linguistic, and historical argumentation that helps determine which of the answers is what Paul meant (or if there is another answer that evidence may lead to). So I would expect an answer to focus on one of the given possibilities, citing sources and logic to defend that view verses one of the others.
Oct
1
comment What did Jesus likely say in John 8:58?
No time to read Williams myself (maybe someday). I understand and agree with (3), but I do feel (1) and (2) relate (unless I completely misread Barrett). "Meaningless" is not a statement about an accent (pronunciation) issue. If the phrase indeed had no meaning in Greek, it makes less sense that LXX translated it as it did (rather than one of the other two ways). But if it had extra biblical support for meaning an elliptical expression for "I am he," then it makes perfect sense for its use in LXX for the Hebrew verbless clause אֲנִי הוּא. I think I'll ask this as a new BH.SE question.
Oct
1
comment What did Jesus likely say in John 8:58?
Since the Hebrew (אֲנִי הוּא) is a verbless clause, why would the Greek add the verb and remove the predicate nominative with ἐγώ εἰμι if that phrase was not already in usage to reflect "I am he"? It seems if it is "meaningless" in Greek, that the translation would have either been kept direct with the Hebrew as εγω ουτος or simply added the verb as εγω ειμι ουτος. Does Williams discuss extra biblical uses of εγω ειμι as a declaration of "I am he" (much like Jn 9:9 usage) in her work that justifies the LXX translation as "good" Greek?
Oct
1
comment What did Jesus likely say in John 8:58?
I'm willing to eat some serious crow on this one. Having examined the various other uses in the Gospels, "I am he" for ἐγώ εἰμι makes a lot of sense, and the tie back to the LXX in Isa 43:10 a good argument. I have one question though. Barrett's contention "'...ἐγώ εἰμι is in itself (as Greek) a meaningless expression'" does not make sense to me. Cont...