Reputation
7,143
Next tag badge:
98/100 score
21/20 answers
Badges
1 8 31
Newest
 Nice Answer
Impact
~72k people reached

1d
revised Earliest attestation to Luke's gospel
Updated with 1 Thess 5 evidences
1d
revised Earliest attestation to Luke's gospel
added 3613 characters in body
1d
awarded  Nice Answer
Jul
26
comment book of revelation written in code
By the poster's own admission, it is not a question, but an answer; it also would not even make a proper answer on this site.
Jul
22
revised Did Eli rebuke his sons?
Fixed typo
Jul
21
comment Did Eli rebuke his sons?
You read BDB (HALOT) correctly. I'm just proposing that perhaps they are wrong, that the typical meaning recognized elsewhere would seem to fit just fine with my proposed reading of the text (and so no need to seek a homonym). However, I placed that secondary in the answer, since I do feel that the main point (even if it means "rebuke" or "restrain") is that Eli did not go far enough in what he should have done, namely, he did not call for his sons to be put to death.
Jul
21
answered Did Eli rebuke his sons?
Jul
14
comment How does John 5:28-29 fit with the dispensational hermeneutic
Regarding "other examples," the link I gave to Liddell and Scott gives many, and the quote from Harrison by Pentecost notes such within the context of John 4 and 5 elsewhere. But I'll point out some specific others when I can research it further.
Jul
14
comment How does John 5:28-29 fit with the dispensational hermeneutic
@JonathanChell: Agree about context sets meaning. But this context does not define the length of the "hour" here, nor does it necessarily define the same "hour" for each individual raised; like saying "the hour the judge calls all who are awaiting trial" would not be indicating each person awaiting trial in a prison is coming at the same time, but rather each has an appointed time, such that all will face the judge for trial. So each "possible meaning" needs to be considered as a potential "fit" for the passage, the greater context of Scripture helping determine what "time" Jesus meant.
Jul
14
comment How does John 5:28-29 fit with the dispensational hermeneutic
@C.StirlingBartholomew: To add to Tau's point, Ryrie's latest Dispensationalism came out in 2007 (so not "ancient history"), and a number of "classic" or "normative" dispensationalists do not even see Bock and other "progressive" dispensationalists as being dispensationalist; or at the vary least not representative of the group in their writings (but that is another argument).
Jul
14
comment How does John 5:28-29 fit with the dispensational hermeneutic
@JonathanChell: the "possible meanings" of a word tie directly to a passage's "plain reading." I've updated the answer to clarify that further, as well as add some other dispenstionalist views.
Jul
14
revised How does John 5:28-29 fit with the dispensational hermeneutic
Expanded
Jul
13
answered How does John 5:28-29 fit with the dispensational hermeneutic
Jul
13
comment How does John 5:28-29 fit with the dispensational hermeneutic
@Susan: IMO, this question falls under "hermeneutical approaches" topic of the site.
Jul
7
comment Is there a Greek word matching the concept of “hate” (unlike Luke 14.26)?
@Susan: Nice find. I'll have to do a little study on that and incorporate into my answer a "third" option.
Jul
7
revised Is there a Greek word matching the concept of “hate” (unlike Luke 14.26)?
Tweaked some wording
Jul
7
comment Is there a Greek word matching the concept of “hate” (unlike Luke 14.26)?
@Kelsey48 I've edited the title for clarity and the question for organization. If you prefer a different English translation, feel free to re-edit.
Jul
7
revised Is there a Greek word matching the concept of “hate” (unlike Luke 14.26)?
Attempted to clarify title to match actual question, add English verse text, and reorder the wording of the question for better organization.
Jun
29
comment Is there a Greek word matching the concept of “hate” (unlike Luke 14.26)?
@Kelsey48: The word διχάζω does not carry (of itself) any emotional connotation. It simply means "to divide in two," or "to separate." Obviously, such could come about because of the "hate" of one for another, but the term itself (as best I can tell) does not carry any such idea without context adding that idea to what caused the division.
Jun
25
answered Greek text of Romans 8:28