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I'm basically a self-taught, now inactive, web designer who still seeks to learn more about css (and some javascript) while pushing it to its limits: all as a part-time hobby between my Ph.D. studies in Systematic Theology. For those interacting with me on Biblical Hermeneutics, this meta question of mine will reveal a lot about where I come from regarding that topic.


13h
comment What is the new covenant made with Jews/Israel in Jeremiah 31:31
I have a hard time agreeing with the close vote as "too broad." While certainly volumes have been written about Jer 31:31, it is but a single verse, and all the sub-questions relate to the interpretation of it. So if our site cannot handle trying to interpret a single verse, then we might as well close shop. It seems a summary answer can be given without getting too bogged down in extensive details. Of course, differing hermeneutics will probably give differing summaries, but that is a good thing.
17h
revised Omission of 'fasting' in Mark 9:29
Added link to Library discussion
2d
revised Omission of 'fasting' in Mark 9:29
Adjusted formatting of info in footnote #2
2d
revised Omission of 'fasting' in Mark 9:29
Tweaked thesis
2d
revised Omission of 'fasting' in Mark 9:29
Added clarification on Origen and Clement
2d
comment Omission of 'fasting' in Mark 9:29
@kmote Thank you for your constructive criticism. I have updated my answer to propose a thesis on systematic omission of the wording, as I would agree that the topical connections to the other passages do tend to point away from accidental.
2d
comment Omission of 'fasting' in Mark 9:29
@Davïd I added to my wording about the "average Joe." I do believe errors were more prone in that time because of this, and that seems to be the general point of why most of the variants were deemed to have arisen in that time. However, the same types of errors occurred whether by professionals or not.
2d
revised Omission of 'fasting' in Mark 9:29
Added further clarifications for plausible majority defense
Oct
21
comment Are the words “wife” and “woman” the same in Hebrew and Greek?
I believe the added possessive pronoun ("own woman"; τὴν ἑαυτοῦ γυναῖκα) and adjective ("own man"; τὸν ἴδιον ἄνδρα) in Greek is specifically the idiomatic way of guaranteeing the term is used for wife/husband. That is, the absence of them would leave the terms more open to the generic woman/man (though not necessarily, context is still important), but because of their addition then the 1 Cor 7:2 passage is certainly using the term in a spousal reference.
Oct
20
comment Omission of 'fasting' in Mark 9:29
I (of course) tend to agree with @JackDouglas here, but I have added further thoughts on this into my answer.
Oct
20
revised Omission of 'fasting' in Mark 9:29
Added more explanation of my logic
Oct
20
comment Omission of 'fasting' in Mark 9:29
+1 Good research on the "why," even if I disagree with the conclusion of omitting.
Oct
20
revised Omission of 'fasting' in Mark 9:29
Added verse reference to title
Oct
20
answered Omission of 'fasting' in Mark 9:29
Oct
16
revised What are the arguments used by literal interpreters of Ezekiel's temple (Ezek. 40-48)?
Added information about Youman's dissertation on genre
Oct
16
comment Which Greek NT passage has proven to have the most variant readings?
@Davïd: I've edited the question. Let me know if that is any more clear to you.
Oct
16
revised Which Greek NT passage has proven to have the most variant readings?
Edited for clarity
Oct
16
comment Which Greek NT passage has proven to have the most variant readings?
@JackDouglas: I see a "shopping" question as desiring a list, and not having a single answer (similar to what you mention here). My question should have but a single correct answer, technically a verse reference with some documentation to back it up (so I also would not classify it as "too broad," like one close vote has). I'm seeking an answer based on statistics, somewhat like this question.
Oct
15
asked Which Greek NT passage has proven to have the most variant readings?
Oct
15
comment Matthew originally written in Hebrew?
In my opinion (and I have my reasons), I generally consider the majority reading is the correct one (and a far more objective measure). Also, to clarify, "every word counts" is a bit misleading, since some words count more than others when determining the meaning of a text (e.g., the presence/absence of the article in some cases), and some variants more than others (spelling need not matter, e.g. color vs. colour). I hope that at least eliminates your confusion on my view (whether you agree or not).