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Apr
24
comment Should Matthew 28:17b be understood in a “partitive” or “inclusive” sense?
@Davïd: Agree, especially about Wallace, but your "core" question was "Is the overwhelming preference for the 'partitive' sense ('some of') justified?" I do think it can be affirmed as definitively "justified" (whether "correct" or not may still be arguable).
Apr
23
revised What are “unnatural” relations or relations “use beyond nature”?
Revised quotation format
Apr
23
comment What are “unnatural” relations or relations “use beyond nature”?
@Tau: Historically, a slight "prescription" at the end of a good exegesis is tolerated on BH.SE (i.e. the logical conclusion of the exegesis is...). Primarily, it is those answers that prescribe only or excessively that have been the issue. However, having said that, I do not even get any feel of "prescription" at all from the "Comments" section of the answer. It is more a "Summary" of what was argued, with an historical addendum about how homosexuality was viewed by OT law and NT Christians. That's my take.
Apr
22
revised Should Matthew 28:17b be understood in a “partitive” or “inclusive” sense?
Added links
Apr
22
revised Should Matthew 28:17b be understood in a “partitive” or “inclusive” sense?
Major edit adding support for partitive
Apr
20
answered Should Matthew 28:17b be understood in a “partitive” or “inclusive” sense?
Apr
13
comment Are there any medieval commentators to mention the Lukan census (of Quirinius, Lk 2:2) in conjunction with the evidence from Josephus?
Welcome to BH.SE! This appears to be a basis for a good answer, however, at a minimum you should cite the exact references in the commentaries you note to show your work, and better yet, to quote them as well (at least in part with respect to answering the question).
Apr
11
comment Why is “Joseph” used in some translations of Luke 2:33?
@PaulA.Clayton: Yaaaa, poor conjecture on my part. I removed that statement.
Apr
11
revised Why is “Joseph” used in some translations of Luke 2:33?
Removed poor conjecture
Apr
10
answered Why is “Joseph” used in some translations of Luke 2:33?
Apr
9
reviewed Satisfactory Why is the only use of the word antichrist (G500) in 1st and 2nd John?
Apr
9
reviewed Needs Improvement What does the phrase "ἐγὼ ἐν τῷ πατρὶ καὶ ὁ πατὴρ ἐν ἐμοί ἐστιν” mean in John 10:38 as well as John 14:10?
Apr
9
reviewed Needs Improvement Is this translation of Genesis 1:1 accurate?
Apr
9
reviewed Needs Improvement What is Jesus' purpose in asking about Psalm 110?
Apr
9
reviewed Needs Improvement What does the Greek word κύριος mean in 1 Cor. 12:3?
Apr
9
reviewed Needs Improvement What is “that day” in John 14:20?
Apr
9
reviewed Satisfactory Did Moses write Psalm 90?
Apr
7
reviewed Needs Improvement Col. 1:27: What is the meaning of “this mystery among the Gentiles, which is Christ in you, the hope of glory”?
Apr
6
reviewed Satisfactory John 16:12 - What were the “many things”?
Apr
6
reviewed Needs Improvement Shema and Psalms 110: Is Mark making a case for Jesus' divinity?