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Jan
9
comment What does it mean that “Scripture interprets Scripture”?
@kmote Eisegesis is a term used by everyone to say that someone they disagree with didn't get it from scripture. Why not instead ask a specific question for scriptural support of the parts you have doubt about.
Jan
7
awarded  Self-Learner
Nov
27
answered What belief does Job refer to in Job 19:25?
Nov
27
comment On what basis is the name “Ephraim” given the etymology of “ash heap”?
Ashes for eye shadow? Only a guess.
Nov
19
awarded  Revival
Nov
19
awarded  Revival
Nov
19
comment Why does Mark mention Elijah before Moses?
yes. When you look at the books in order Mark, Matthew, Luke, John, each one adds insights into the typology of the previous authors. The question isn't why is Mark different, but why did Matthew and Luke change it. They did so as they had a deeper understanding of the sublime.
Nov
18
comment On what basis is the name “Ephraim” given the etymology of “ash heap”?
Oh.. and English is not deeply rooted as is Hebrew, so I agree that your example is nonsense.
Nov
18
comment On what basis is the name “Ephraim” given the etymology of “ash heap”?
In the case of bull it is a two letter word as well as a subroot.
Nov
18
comment On what basis is the name “Ephraim” given the etymology of “ash heap”?
Google "Hebrew subroots" to find Jewish sources. Although it is all over the internet now, it was originally only taught to Jewish men over age 40. It is also suggested by rabbis that individual letters have hieroglyphic meanings and that an unknown Hebrew word can be discerned from the meaning of the letters.
Nov
18
answered Ecclesiastes 11:1-2 Puzzlement
Nov
17
revised Why does Mark mention Elijah before Moses?
added why John doesn't mention the transfiguration
Nov
17
answered Why does Mark mention Elijah before Moses?
Nov
17
comment Why does Mark mention Elijah before Moses?
@soldarnal I am curious about your hermeneutic. I am generally mocked for suggesting that every jot and tittle has meaning as well as word placement and usage. I am encouraged that you suggest that word order might have meaning.
Nov
16
comment Definition of Greek γενεά (genea)
Heck, even in precisely defined languages (as in software) you can still have multiple meanings by overrides. ;-)
Nov
16
comment Definition of Greek γενεά (genea)
Studies in early childhood learning show that punning and riddle are critical for developing the use and understanding of language precisely because words have more than one meaning. Children who can only comprehend one meaning are considered stunted in development. It is doubtful that there is only one right interpretation even if you were speaking in the same language. But since words in different languages include different subsets of meaning, when translating it is even more unlikely that there is a single 'right' meaning in English.
Nov
16
answered On what basis is the name “Ephraim” given the etymology of “ash heap”?
Nov
16
comment Why is Israel referred to with a male pronoun in Jeremiah 31:10?
It should also probably include why Jeremiah says all men will become pregnant. His changing number and gender of pronouns is an intentional use of words to focus our attention on something specific.
Nov
16
comment Why is Israel referred to with a male pronoun in Jeremiah 31:10?
An answer might include why it is not feminine Jer 3:8 And I saw, when for all the causes whereby backsliding Israel committed adultery I had put her away, and given her a bill of divorce; yet her treacherous sister Judah feared not, but went and played the harlot also.
Nov
16
revised What is the significance of Methuselah's name?
Minor