327 reputation
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location IN
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visits member for 1 year, 10 months
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I am called to, "Teach the Word of the Lord; sing it to the nations loud and clear."
I enjoy inductive Bible study!
I study to show myself approved unto God.
I am intent upon what Scripture says, what it means and, what difference it makes.
I do not need to be right; but, I do need to discover what is right; thus, I welcome honest interaction/feedback.

e-mail: sarah.noll@frontier.com


1d
awarded  Self-Learner
Nov
18
comment What is “the Lord's Day” in Revelation 1:10?
Thank you for your request. I inserted a couple links into the question to provide the literary context, one on "the Lord's Day" and the other on "Revelation chapter one." The first brings you to a page that has the verse translated in several languages. The second contains the entire first chapter of Revelation in which this verse if found. By clicking on the arrows at the top of the second page one can progress through the rest of the book of Revelation.
Nov
18
revised What is “the Lord's Day” in Revelation 1:10?
inserting link to passage for context based on comment
Nov
15
answered What was the “yoke” that neither the disciples nor their fathers could bear? Acts 15:10
Nov
15
asked What was the “yoke” that neither the disciples nor their fathers could bear? Acts 15:10
Nov
14
comment Are the divine name and its contracted form somehow unique or are they truly inter-changeable?
+1 Thank you for this contribution. Please edit your answer to clarify what you mean by, "All the Prophets and apostles have Yahu - AL - Yah and Wah is only on Eve's name." Also, You say, "Ayah Asher Ayah is interchangeable and that's how we get YAHUWAH. I have that info if interested." Yes, please do add that information in. Your last paragraph is not necessary on this forum. Finally, you share several relevant passages of Scripture but do not connect the dots by explaining the relationship between them and the question; please show your logical steps as much as possible. Welcome to BH-SE!
Oct
31
comment What was the historical and cultural context of baptism in the time of Christ?
Thank you for your contribution; +1 for the perspective and information. To improve this post, you will want to cite a credible source to support the definition of Mikvah. You will also want to cite a credible source to support your statement that in Jesus time, to enter the mikvah one needed to be scrupulously clean. I see from your profile that you have already answered a few questions, but are fairly new to the site; welcome to BH-SE.
Oct
31
comment Was the Passover meal to be boiled according to Deuteronomy 16:5-7?
I have a couple thoughts, neither of which were addressed. 1) regarding contradictions, God's instruction to Israel just after the Exodus in regard to Sabbath was that they were not to leave their house. Later they were to gather together on the Sabbath (which would require they leave their houses); thus, we see, God can give different instructions at different times (like a mom saying don't go out with out a jacket in winter but do in summer). 2) Since the word can mean boil or cook, would not Israel have simply understood the later instruction in light of the former?
Oct
30
comment How long were the Children of Israel enslaved in Egypt?
I see that you edited your post based on my comment so it now reads "no extra-biblical evidence." You must have missed David's comment from March 6th; you may want to unrest your case.
Oct
29
comment How should we understand “he cannot sin” in 1 John 3:9?
I'm thinking you left out a "not" in "The Apostle John does not intend..." I was with you up until this point. I notice CEV interprets this passage in its translation as "we have not sinned" This is a significant distinction because the word, "sinner" implies someone who normally does something--a teacher teaches, a sinner sins. believers cannot continue in sin, but they lie if they say they have not sinned. Could this be more clearly worded, "The Apostle John does not intend to convey that the believer has not sinned, but that..." Nonetheless +1. I knew what you meant.
Oct
29
comment Does the miracle of the Woman with an Issue of Blood indicate that healing power flows spontaneously from Jesus?
PS. I see there is a question in there, I just think folks will think this sounds more like a teaching or a discussion; note that you ask for comments not answers. You might be able to generate more interaction on this in chat, or edit this to ask a specific question. For what it is worth, I agree. Jesus was anointed to heal the sick. There is a similar passage that says the power of God was present to heal (Luke 5:17).
Oct
29
comment Does the miracle of the Woman with an Issue of Blood indicate that healing power flows spontaneously from Jesus?
The Q&A portion of this site prefers "questions that can be answered not just discussed." You appear to have a theory/teaching that you would like to test or share. This is very appropriate subject matter for chat in the library (chat room); or, you might consider creating a chat room to discuss just this topic/theory/perspective.
Oct
13
awarded  Necromancer
Oct
3
comment Are the divine name and its contracted form somehow unique or are they truly inter-changeable?
The link you provide appears to convey rabbinic law in regard to this most holy and divine name; but it does not address matters of meaning or reason for the contracted form. I assure you that, while I am not Jewish, nor under rabbinic authority, I do revere our Creator and hold His name in utmost reverence. It is in a spirit of worship and an effort to hallow His name that I make my inquiries, that I might bring glory to His name, for He is exalted above all and His name is above all names in heaven or on earth.
Sep
30
awarded  Explainer
Sep
24
comment Does Leviticus 19:28 in the original text instruct not to tattoo for the dead or not to tattoo at all?
Thank you Jarius. I would be interested to see this elaborated upon.
Sep
21
comment Are the divine name and its contracted form somehow unique or are they truly inter-changeable?
Thank you James. While both these questions are in regard to the same form of the name of God, they are separate and distinct. The first deals with the Hebrew construction and grammar, how the contraction came into existence and technically which letters are dropped, etc. This question deals with meaning of the two forms of God's name and any distinctions in meaning that may or may not exist between them.
Sep
21
comment Is “God” capitalised because it's the given name of Christianity's god?
Hello Andrew. This is a good question; I think it may be better suited for Christianity SE though. Questions on Biblical Hermeneutics SE need to be based on a particular passage of Scripture.
Sep
17
revised Does the Holy Spirit have a name
pruning out elements that distracted from the point the OP was trying to make.
Sep
17
suggested suggested edit on Does the Holy Spirit have a name