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seen Mar 24 '13 at 14:28

Mar
13
comment How should πονηρός be translated in Matthew 7:11, and why?
Thanks, Mike. Although I still don't think the answer you originally gave was correct. Your logic was stilted. But, really. Thanks for the follow-up.
Mar
11
comment How should πονηρός be translated in Matthew 7:11, and why?
Yes, I suppose that someone will have to give me a more technical explanation. Yours begs the question of whether 'you bad be' is correct. You simply state that it is so, & you reason that it does not leave room for the other interpretation. Logically, it could just as easily be not 'you bad suffer,' but 'you suffer be.' Your assertion uses 'bad' as the constant instead of the variable. Also, exegetically, by your reasoning, Christ suffered & thereby increased in faith & goodness. We know that he was perfect in faith & goodness, & so needed no increase, so your assertion is not logical.
Mar
11
asked How should πονηρός be translated in Matthew 7:11, and why?
Jan
28
revised Was Origen Adamantius an “allegorist” in the modern sense of the word?
corrected misspellings and typographical errors; some editing for content.
Jan
28
suggested suggested edit on Was Origen Adamantius an “allegorist” in the modern sense of the word?
Jan
28
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Jan
25
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Jan
25
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Jan
25
revised Does Theophilus of Antioch's statement have any bearing on interpreting Mathew 5:28?
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Jan
25
suggested suggested edit on Does Theophilus of Antioch's statement have any bearing on interpreting Mathew 5:28?
Jan
24
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Jan
24
answered Does πορνεία mean premarital sex in 1 Corinthians 5-7?
Jan
24
asked Does Theophilus of Antioch's statement have any bearing on interpreting Mathew 5:28?