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| visits | member for | 4 months |
| seen | May 1 at 18:14 | |
| stats | profile views | 4 |
Checking this out.
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Apr 25 |
comment |
Why does Mark provide two feeding accounts? Augustine allegories both accounts, Chrysostom treated them as separate events, most modern scholar think it is same event. That is a valid argument though. Greek very similar between 6 and 8 (πολυν οχλον in 6:34 vs. οχλου in 8:1, many more paradigmatic and syntagmatic structural similarities). |
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Apr 25 |
comment |
Why does Mark provide two feeding accounts? I not have time to defend answer and write a book for you so I only comment on this site now. First account is on west side of lake (Jewish side), but second feeding is on east side (Gentile side). Also follows is an encounter with woman from southern Syria then Jesus heals deaf and mute person. Mark is telling us something important in second account. I don't think they describe same incident. |
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Mar 6 |
comment |
What were the major objections that Augustine had with Jerome's translation of the Hebrew Bible? Probably both wrong. Augustine did not read Greek, he had Latin bible. |
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Mar 5 |
awarded | Nice Question |
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Mar 5 |
revised |
A word for the fallacy of assuming whatever brings God the most glory is the correct interpretation a text? Expand |
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Mar 5 |
comment |
A word for the fallacy of assuming whatever brings God the most glory is the correct interpretation a text? I trying to be funny, but I also do think answer is true. Glory and sovereignty of God is central hermeneutic of Calvinism. I try to expand. |
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Mar 5 |
comment |
Was the word ἐπιούσιον used prior to the Lord's prayer? What does it mean? But I not have time to explain. I did not even explain in my answer, it was edited with that. I agree mostly, but I think you are limiting sacrament to special things not everything. God is everywhere present and fillest all things. |
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Mar 5 |
comment |
Was the word ἐπιούσιον used prior to the Lord's prayer? What does it mean? Everything is sacramental in Orthodox, not just water, wine and bread. Because we believe matter is sacred, we not pagan dualists like most evangelical. |
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Feb 28 |
comment |
Was the word ἐπιούσιον used prior to the Lord's prayer? What does it mean? Yes this is what I meant, but why waste time explaining all that? Good for you. If they just read their own history they would know this. I have no interest in explaining things anyone can read book to learn. I want to talk about stuff no books written yet for. |
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Feb 28 |
revised |
Was the word ἐπιούσιον used prior to the Lord's prayer? What does it mean? Making people happy; edited body |
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Feb 28 |
comment |
A word for the fallacy of assuming whatever brings God the most glory is the correct interpretation a text? But Calvinism is answer, whether he like it or not this is who does it, even if some guy came up with fancier term like I just did |
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Feb 28 |
revised |
Was the word ἐπιούσιον used prior to the Lord's prayer? What does it mean? added 21 characters in body |
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Feb 28 |
answered | Was the word ἐπιούσιον used prior to the Lord's prayer? What does it mean? |
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Feb 27 |
comment |
A word for the fallacy of assuming whatever brings God the most glory is the correct interpretation a text? No, it's hagiatheocentrism. My answer is joke. |
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Feb 26 |
answered | A word for the fallacy of assuming whatever brings God the most glory is the correct interpretation a text? |
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Feb 26 |
answered | What is the difference in meaning between Χριστός Ἰησοῦς and Ἰησοῦς Χριστός? |
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Feb 19 |
comment |
Contextually, which English translation/ Greek text seems more probable in Rev. 5:10? This is the best answer |
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Feb 19 |
awarded | Citizen Patrol |
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Feb 17 |
comment |
the word for “seven” compared with the word for “Sabbath” in Scripture I would link to the relevant question also to show this question is related to a textual question (I know the context, but others may not and assume this is just a Hebrew language question, which would be off topic). |
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Feb 17 |
suggested | suggested edit on “the first day of the week” in 1 Corinthians 16:2 |
