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14

Yes. The Hebrew שָׂטָן (śāṭān) is frequently transliterated into Greek as σαταν (satan) or σατανᾶς (satanas) — 36 times in the New Testament. The word διάβολος (diabolos) is also used (37 times). Diabolos is technically an adjective meaning “slanderous”, and it is occasionally used attributively, describing people (e.g. 1 Tim 3:11). However, like ...


12

The Greek text of Phil. 4:3 according to the Textus Receptus states, καὶ ἐρωτῶ καὶ σέ σύζυγε γνήσιε συλλαμβάνου αὐταῖς αἵτινες ἐν τῷ εὐαγγελίῳ συνήθλησάν μοι μετὰ καὶ Κλήμεντος καὶ τῶν λοιπῶν συνεργῶν μου ὧν τὰ ὀνόματα ἐν βίβλῳ ζωῆς TR, 1550 The Greek word σύζυγε is declined in vocative case, either the feminine or masculine gender, and singular ...


10

History The Hebrew and Greek terms for 'messenger' do have this natural overlap, and can cause contention in translation. The Latin Vulgate was the first translation which tried to separate the word into divine and human, by transliterating the Greek term αγγελος to create the Latin angelus for divine messengers, and 'translating' it properly for human ...


8

Rhoads, Dewey and Michie say, in Mark as Story, page 46, that Mark's style keeps the narration moving along. Instead of "telling about" the story in generalities and abstractions, the narrator "shows" the events by a straightforward recounting of actions and dialogue. Episodes are usually brief, scenes change often and minor characters appear and quickly ...


8

Ὅταν δὲ ἔλθῃ ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ ἀνθρώπου ἐν τῇ δόξῃ αὐτοῦ καὶ πάντες οἱ ἄγγελοι μετ᾿ αὐτοῦ, τότε καθίσει ἐπὶ θρόνου δόξης αὐτοῦ· (NA28) But when the son of man comes in his glory (doxē autou) and all the angels with him, then he will sit on the throne of his glory (doxēs autou). (Susan's wooden rendition) There is no distinction drawn here between two types ...


8

It is correct to say that σύζυγος (literally “yoke-mate, one of a pair”) can be masculine or feminine, and that it is very often used to mean “wife” in classical and post-classical Greek. But in this passage it is modified by the adjective γνήσιε, which is unmistakeably masculine singular vocative. Thus, “wife” is not possible here. Anyway, as you point ...


7

Clearly No Distinction of Being Your core question is "Did the Synoptic writers intend to convey any distinction between διάβολος and σατανᾶς?" If by "distinction," you mean differing personalities (i.e. persons or beings), then I believe you have already answered your own question by noting the fact that Matthew and/or Luke uses διάβολος in places where ...


7

The Hebrew term here is טַף (ṭaf), a noun always used as a collective. The hint of a specific age limit for this group comes from Numbers 14:29-31. Here Yahweh tells the people that those over the age of twenty will die in the wilderness and not enter the promised land, a punishment for their complaints and disobedience. Your dead bodies shall fall ...


6

I recently read an excellent paper on this subject by Cynthia Long Westfall: "The Meaning of αὐθεντέω in 1 Timothy 2.12", Journal of Greco-Roman Christianity and Judaism 10.7 (2014). It's a long paper (36 pages), but well-worth the read, IMO. I will briefly summarize the paper here. Westfall looks at 61 of the 317 known occurrences αὐθεντέω documented in ...


6

Yes, this seems to be a common way that it was used. As another answer pointed out, the noun is not found elsewhere in the New Testament. However, Luke was familiar with (arguably, an imitator of) both LXX and Classical Greek, and there are multiple examples of ἀγωνία with this sense available there. Because context is required, I have included only English ...


6

The Liddell-Scott-Jones dictionary (Ninth Edition, p. 421) states unambiguously that the phrase διδακτοὶ τοῦ θεοῦ should be translated as "taught by God." They also reference Isaiah 54:13. In Classical Ancient Greek, verbs that denote knowing, learning, etc. take the genitive for what we would consider their direct objects. This would tend to support the ...


6

Reference is to Improper Blessing The word ברך in the piel, when God is the object, typically means to actively "praise God" for something, and in the pual, to refer passively to "God being praised" for something. I do not think there is reason to have that meaning changed in these instances, nor to conjecture that it is a euphemism, as many have.1 Rather,...


5

Subsequent to the publication of Greek Myths and Christian Mystery, referenced by another answer, Manolis Papoutsakis made an ingenious hypothesis that may finally solve the mystery as to how the odd translation arose. In his paper, "Ostriches into Sirens: Towards an Understanding of a Septuagint Crux" (Journal of Jewish Studies, Vol. LV, No. 1, Spring 2004)...


5

This is a fantastic question, but one that appears to have no clear answer at this time. I've done some digging around and though I could not find an exact answer, I found some illuminating information that may help your or others in your research. Greek Myths and Christian Mystery by Hugo Rahner provides some significant insight. Beginning on page 357, he ...


5

@Joseph's reference document (positing this statement as "euphemism"; mentioned in his comment above) is most compelling to me. Here are some similar suggestions from scholarly commentaries: From John Hartley, NICOT (p. 65, n.7): The word translated "curse", barak (also in 2:5. 9), which usually means "bless," is used euphemistically. Many consider it a ...


5

Is there any evidence that this phrase should be translated 'ganja'? No. Exodus 30:23 (ESV) reads: Take the finest spices: of liquid myrrh 500 shekels, and of sweet-smelling cinnamon half as much, that is, 250, and 250 of aromatic cane (qənêh-bōśem) The OP points out: there is a speculation that kaneh bosem is a plural form of kaneh bos. ...


5

ἀπόλουσαι is a second person singular aorist middle imperative (2S AMI) from ἀπολούω meaning "to wash away from oneself." It can not be derived either from ἀπολύω (2S AMI = ἀπολύσαι; "depart"1 ) or ἀπόλλυμι (2S AMI = ἀπόλου; "perish"). In addition to the morphologic discrepancies, the middle forms of both ἀπολύω and ἀπόλλυμι are intransitive verbs, meaning ...


5

Preamble Without vowel markings the Hebrew word for "almond" and one of their words for "watch" look the same, שקד. With the vowel markings, almond is שָׁקֵ֖ד (šā-qêḏ), and "watch" is שֹׁקֵ֥ד (šō-qêḏ). In the days prior to vowel markings, those who read the text would have had to have heard it read to them with the distinctive vowel sounds, otherwise the ...


4

No, it is not. As they are used in the New Testament, πλήρης χάριτος describes one's own character and capacity to bestow favor; κεχαριτωμένος is a designation of God's attitude and actions toward the one so labeled. Κεχαριτωμένος χαῖρε, κεχαριτωμένη, ὁ κύριος μετὰ σοῦ. Greetings, O favored one, the Lord is with you!1 Κεχαριτωμένος is a perfect ...


4

"The dead in Christ" (οἱ νεκροὶ ἐν Χριστῷ; 1 The. 4:16), and likewise "those asleep in Christ" (οἱ κοιμηθέντες ἐν Χριστῷ; 1 Cor. 15:18) are dead Christians. The "babes in Christ" (νηπίοις ἐν Χριστῷ; 1 Cor. 3:1) are new Christian converts. When the apostle Paul writes, "...if any man be in Christ, he is a new creature" (2 Cor. 5:17), he means the Christian is ...


4

Common Misconception of a Purely Technical Usage It is commonly believed that Paul's usage of "in Christ" refers to a particular concept in all cases. That is, that it is a technical phrase "meaning" a specific thing every place it is used. However, this is not a demonstrable idea. Paul does regularly use the phrase to refer to the concept of essentially ...


4

There is no verb φάγω. That is, there is no verb whose first person singular present active indicative is φάγω. Rather, what we have here is that the aorist of ἐσθίω "to eat" (which itself derives from the primary verb ἔδω "to eat") is the defective form ἔφαγον. From this, we of course get that the first person singular aorist active subjunctive would be ...


4

χωρὶς ἁμαρτίας means without or apart from [χωρὶςer] sin [ἁμαρτίαςer]. The same phrase is found earlier: For we do not have a high priest who cannot sympathize with our weaknesses, but One who has been tempted in all things as we are, yet without (χωρὶς) sin (ἁμαρτίας). (Hebrews 4:15 NASB) Some recent translations may express the idea in 9:28 better: ...


3

Note: The context of the following argument is confined to the NT. The use of διαβολος in the LXX is another matter, entirely. There can be little doubt that διαβολος and σατανας are referring to the same individual. Clear support for this is given by the authors of the temptation passages in Matthew and Luke. Both authors introduce the tempter as "του ...


3

Brown-Driver-Brigg's definition of rêa‛ (רֵיעַ): friend, companion, fellow, another person friend, intimate fellow, fellow-citizen, another person (weaker sense) other, another (reciprocal phrase) "Neighbor" is probably the best word to use in this particular case, because at this point Saul and David aren't really "friends" or "companions." "Fellow" ...


3

The Greek word Αββα occurs three (3) times in three (3) verses in the Textus Receptus. Mark 14:36 καὶ ἔλεγεν Αββα ὁ πατήρ πάντα δυνατά σοι παρένεγκε τὸ ποτήριον ἀπ᾽ ἐμοῦ τοῦτο ἀλλ᾽ οὐ τί ἐγὼ θέλω ἀλλὰ τί σύ (TR, 1550) Rom. 8:15 οὐ γὰρ ἐλάβετε πνεῦμα δουλείας πάλιν εἰς φόβον ἀλλ᾽ ἐλάβετε πνεῦμα υἱοθεσίας ἐν ᾧ κράζομεν Αββα ὁ πατήρ (TR, 1550) ...


3

The same word is found in Mark 10:51 and John 20:16: ραββουνι (rabbouni). Rabbi vs Rabboni (in English translations) The distinction in English versions is related to a choice between translation (using an English word) and transliteration (letter-for-letter copying of the Greek). In Mark 10:51, Rabbi (an established English word, albeit also originally ...


3

The term κωφός, according to William Arndt, Frederick W. Danker, and Walter Bauer in A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature (Chicago: University of Chicago Press, 2000), can mean either just mute, just deaf, or both, and gives numerous references for each to other Greek texts supporting the various usages. So the ...


3

To put this as a purely linguistic question: Hebrew qānē is the same word as Sumerian gin, Akkadian qanū, Ugaritic qn, Greek κάννα, Latin canna, all meaning “reed” or “cane”. Greek κάνναβις, Latin cannabis, English “hemp” is a different word, perhaps ultimately from Sumerian kunibu, all meaning “hemp”. These two words cannot very well be connected.


3

I believe there is a reason for distinct words in Scripture, even when possibly synonymous, just as we use nearly synonymous words to give subtly to ideas. NOTE: I hold to primarily Mosaic authorship by divine inspiration. Clarification The term "heart" (לֵב, lēḇ) herein refers to Pharaoh's mind, spirit, and will, i.e., the "inner person" per what the ...



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