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Yes. The Hebrew שָׂטָן (śāṭān) is frequently transliterated into Greek as σαταν (satan) or σατανᾶς (satanas) — 36 times in the New Testament. The word διάβολος (diabolos) is also used (37 times). Diabolos is technically an adjective meaning “slanderous”, and it is occasionally used attributively, describing people (e.g. 1 Tim 3:11). However, like ...


8

Ὅταν δὲ ἔλθῃ ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ ἀνθρώπου ἐν τῇ δόξῃ αὐτοῦ καὶ πάντες οἱ ἄγγελοι μετ᾿ αὐτοῦ, τότε καθίσει ἐπὶ θρόνου δόξης αὐτοῦ· (NA28) But when the son of man comes in his glory (doxē autou) and all the angels with him, then he will sit on the throne of his glory (doxēs autou). (Susan's wooden rendition) There is no distinction drawn here between two ...


3

Yes, this seems to be a common way that it was used. As another answer pointed out, the noun is not found elsewhere in the New Testament. However, Luke was familiar with (arguably, an imitator of) both LXX and Classical Greek, and there are multiple examples of ἀγωνία with this sense available there. Because context is required, I have included only English ...


2

While the Hebrew word השׁטן (saw-tawn') occurs 23 times in the OT, rendered as Satan a total of 17 times in the NET (Job 1:6-12; 2:1-7; Zech 3:1-2), with the other occurrences being translated variously as accuser, adversary, enemy, or to oppose, the Greek words σατάν and σατανᾶς occur 36 times in the NT, rendered every time as Satan in the NET.


1

I recently read an excellent paper on this subject "The Meaning of αὐθεντέω in 1 Timothy 2.12" (2014) by Cynthia Long Westfall. Its a long paper (36 pages), but well-worth the read, IMO. I will briefly summarize the paper here. Westfall looks at 61 of the 317 known occurrences αὐθεντέω documented in Thesaurus Linguae Graecae. (The sample was chosen ...



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