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Of the several dozen English translations offered at the Bible Study Tools link, the three that include the Hebrew word Elyon are all publications of Messianic Judaism. They are not English translations of the Hebrew text but paraphrases of English versions with some words translated back into Hebrew (or Yiddish). The two translators who added the ‘ha’ ...


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I can’t speak to whether it’s translation reflects a particular theology, but the Lexham English Bible (2011) may get a little closer than the NASB to the ‘transparent’ translation the OP suggests, if less literal than Young’s. Most helpfully, idiomatic phrases, supplied words, and textual variants are clearly indicated, either in the text itself – using ...


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Question Restatement: When translating from Hebrew to English, why is "The", as a definite article, injected into translations, when the definite article, "The/ה", is not present in the original text? NOTE: "אל עליון" is not the Name of God, but rather a Title, distinguishing God (אל, El, God/Mighty), with a qualifier, (עליון, Highest) from the others, ...


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Question Restatement: What is the linguistic basis for the shortened form of "I am he" in Greek, "ἐγώ εἰμι", in the Septuagint, Isaiah 43:10. There are quite a few "I am .." statements in Isaiah, and perhaps this is intended to be an "Elliptical Construction", wherein the reader makes all of the necessary inferences. I wouldn't expect to find ...


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Question Restatement: (Part 1) Is there extra-Biblical precedence to render "ἐγώ εἰμι" as "I am he"? (Part 2) Are there any indications, in the Hebrew, or Aramaic Texts, or Liturgy, to indicate a formulaic use of "I am he" to justify inventing the "Exceptional Greek Syntax"? (Part 3) And if neither of the above, why is this Syntax used to translate ...



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