Hot answers tagged translation-philosophy
16
It does not appear to be a very good translation of this word.
1473 (εγώ) is the personal pronoun, "I", so it tells us that Jesus was talking about Himself.
1510.2.1 (ειμι) is the real core of the question. 1510 is the infinitive "to be, exist". The following numbers (".2.1") tell you more about the nuances of meaning - tense, voice, etc. Some ...
9
The Old Testament is primarily in Biblical Hebrew (the term given to the Semitic language that the Bible was written in from which modern Hebrew descends) with some Aramaic in various places (Ezra 4:8-6:18; 7:12-26; Jeremiah 10:11; Daniel 2:46-7:28; and two words in Genesis 31:47).
The New Testament is in Koine (common) 1st-century Greek. Classical Greek is ...
8
The source texts for the NT include various Greek manuscripts and sometimes the Latin Vulgate.
The source texts for the OT include the Masoretic text (Aleppo Codex, Leningrad Codex), as well as the Latin Vulgate, Greek Septuagint, and Dead Sea Scrolls.
Translators of new English translations often use some or all of those source texts when producing a new ...
8
Most of the answers so far are getting all hung up over very specific examples of morphological analysis. It is by far better to start with the basic notion of "morphological analysis", then look at how each of these instances already mentioned meet the goals of morphological analysis.
Morphological analysis means exactly what the etymology suggests: it is ...
8
Implicit in the question is the assumption that we are trying to produce an English translation that best captures the nuance of the original Greek without importing any doctrine. In other words, we want a "literal" translation that's useful for interpretation. There are two translation issues here and we can easily separate them and look at them ...
7
Different ancient translators had different translation philosophies. Some were very rigid and always used Greek word X for Hebrew word Y. Others were more dynamic. We can actually use these philosophies to determine when different translators are responsible for different books. For example, the Greek of Numbers is very literal (except the name of the ...
7
Can do either, obviously. If they edit an existing translation, this is called a "rescension" (The Living Bible was one, a paraphrase of the KJV). However, most of the time, they use Hebrew, Greek, and Aramaic text. As an example, The New Living Translation does this. But they don't stop with just one manuscript. They compare different manuscripts of a ...
6
I don't have a problem with a change like this. The concept behind "brother" in these contexts is "fellow member of the covenant community." Originally, it applied to Jews only. Then very early Christians began referring to themselves as "brethren" both amongst themselves and to Jews. Acts 1:16 is a great example of that, but there are others in Acts ...
5
It should be noted that several terms in the NT have broader and narrower meanings, such as diakonos, which can refer to Christ Himself (Rom 15:8), to an ordained role ("deacon"; see Phi 1:1; 1 Tim 3:8–12) or more generally to any servant of the church, even a "minister" (e.g. in Col 1:25, Paul refers to himself as a diakonos; cf also 1 Tim 4:6: Timothy was ...
4
A simple way to explain the RMAC (Robinson's Morphological Analysis Codes) is that words in the Greek language changed ('morph'-ed) their form depending on how they were being used (and therefore to be understood) in a given context. We do this same thing with many of our own words: give, given, giver, gave; have, has, hasn't, had; go, going, gone, went, ...
4
I am drawing on some portions of notes that I had to present in a class. As such, there are sentence fragments and other oddities in it that I've yet to edit out. There's a lot more information than is required in order to answer your questions, but setting the context is always a default that I have.
Ultimately, I don't really believe that there is any ...
4
Yes, they are the same
In most cases, one would consider the passage as a whole in order to determine how to translate a specific word with multiple possible meanings. Likewise, exegesis should take source languages and translation process into account. (An example might be a passage where a particular word or phrase could change the understanding if ...
4
Its seems that the Greek 'logos' is similar in concept to the "Tao" of the Lao Tzu and the Taoists, however this is just a coincidence. It seems various English websites have locked onto this similarity conjecturing things about it, but asking one of my many Chinese christian friends, I have been told the word just means original reason or truth.
For ...
3
Καὶ εἶδον θρόνους, καὶ ἐκάθισαν ἐπ’ αὐτούς, καὶ κρίμα ἐδόθη αὐτοῖς is the phrase in question.
"And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given to them..."
αὐτοῖς is a dative plural and, outside of its temporal function, usually indicates indirect object. This would result in the latter of the two renderings (which is by no means ...
3
It is the tendency in Greek grammar (and I believe is also common in European languages, before the wide use of what we've come to call politically-correct language) that whenever mixed-gender groups are referred to, the masculine is used. (Smyth, §197a, §1055)
So in Romans 1:13, if Paul had wanted to say either "brothers" or "siblings" he would have said ...
3
Going back to the Greek, the word translated "circumcised" or "circuncidados" is peritome <4061>, which means "circumcised". It comes from peritemno <4059>, which means "to cut around" so the word is talking about the ritual, surgical act that is a unique tradition of the Jews. The other word ("uncircumcised" or "gentiles") is akrobustia <203>, ...
3
We know exactly what Paul meant by the word because he immediately explains it:
For I am the least of the apostles, unworthy to be called an apostle, because I persecuted the church of God.—1 Corinthians 15:9 (ESV)
Therefore Paul means us to understand that when Jesus appeared to him on the road to Damascus (see Acts 9), he was not worthy to be ...
3
I appreciate the question. I think it stems from some wrong presuppositions, though - namely, that sexual "love" is strictly within the domain of eros rather than agape. I agree that sexual love can be eros, but it is not the exclusive owner of it. In fact, all pure, other-centered love is agape. This applies just as much to the sexual arena as anything ...
2
This is far from a complete answer, but I thought I'd add a few notes on what I've found so far to potentially help anyone else who tries to figure out what morphological analysis in bible study is for, until we get some more answers.
I found the term "morphological analysis" when I was re-installing e-Sword and noticed a plugin tool called "Robinson's ...
2
I see what you are getting at. In the ESV it does seem to speak just the way you say (my expanded paraphrase):
Shall I save these wicked people from Sheol? (Of course not!)
Shall I redeem them from Death (Of course not!)
...But speaking of ‘redeem’ I will insert this confusing prophecy. For although I said ‘Of course not!' I will reject my people ...
2
From the clutches of the grave I would ransom them, from death I would redeem them; I will be your words of death; I will decree the
grave upon you. Remorse shall be hidden from My eyes.
-From the Complete Jewish Bible
I will ransom them from the power of the grave; I will redeem them
from death: O death, I will be thy plagues; O grave, I will ...
2
I honestly think that concordances are an artifact of a time past, and really quite unnecessary now. To be absolutely clear, concordances never aided the understanding of the underlying language, or not much at least. The men of the past who painstakingly made these books were remarkable, I can't even imagine the effort involved. However, computers are ...
2
For a detailed discussion of this, I recommend A History of New Testament Lexicography by John A. L. Lee. It specifically explores how translators have relied heavily on lexicons, which in turn rely heavily on earlier translations and other lexicons.
2
I don't see any support in the text for this translation, but the variation is much older than KJV. According to Rashi the targum renders this "and did not cease". (Relatedly, in Gen 38:26 the targum doesn't but another source does, leading to a rather different understanding of Yehudah and Tamar.) I am not fluent in Aramaic and can't evaluate the targum ...
1
Abstract
The ESV's interpretation is correct: rather than being judged, authority to judge is being given to those seated on the thrones.
It's worth backing up quite a ways before we get to the Greek. Structurally, John's visions within Revelation "take off" in 4:1, with the upward call to see "what must take place after this." The first vision is ...
1
First, it seems that Dao is often transliterated as Tao. I first heard of the concept via C. S. Lewis' seminal essay, The Abolition of Man:
The Chinese also speak of a great thing (the greatest thing) called the Tao. It is the reality beyond all predicates, the abyss that was before the Creator Himself. It is Nature, it is the Way, the Road. It is the ...
1
While other people have suggested that it is the prophet himself speaking - in which case the passage shouldn't be in quotes - it seems best to me to understand the speaker to be God quoting Ephraim and Judah after he has carried through with the things prophesied at the end of chapter 5. God speaking in verse 5:14 says:
For I will be like a lion to ...
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