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One of the critical scholars who believe the attribution to Paul is clearly fictional is Burton L. Mack, who says (Who Wrote the New Testament, p206) the language, style and thought of Titus is thoroughly un-Pauline. He says the ‘personal’ references to particular occasions in the lives of Timothy, Titus, and Paul do not fit with reconstructions of that ...


4

The pre-Pauline references to the brother magicians are rare. Other answers draw attention to the mention of the names by Pliny in his Natural History (XXX.1.11). This was published at the end of the 70s, however, and so is only evidence that the names were current by Paul's time. There was a theory that the second century BCE Jewish historian Artapanus, ...


4

One early lesson in Classical Greek class is that neuter plural nouns in Greek function as a "collective" in the singular, and therefore can take verbs and their forms in the singular. The Greek word in question in 1 Tim 3:4 is τέκνa, which is neuter plural. REFERENCE: Smyth, Herbert Weir (1918). Greek Grammar. Cambridge: Harvard University Press, 264.


3

Most Protestant scholars believe in justification by faith alone (obviously). And there is also a tendency to extend faith alone further, i.e. into sanctification too. Beginning with this doctrinal bias, they start with the presupposition that Romans and Galatians are the unquestionably authentic epistles because Romans and Galatians are the most useful to ...


2

The exact same Greek words ("sound doctrine" in Titus 2:1) also occur in three other of Paul's writings - 1 Timothy 1:8-11 (NASB) 8 But we know that the Law is good, if one uses it lawfully, 9 realizing the fact that law is not made for a righteous person, but for those who are lawless and rebellious, for the ungodly and sinners, for the unholy and ...


2

In Rom 1:8-10, Paul's blessing refers to the strong faith of the Romans; in 1 Cor 1:4-6 likewise, as Paul thanks God for their faith; 2 Cor 1:2-7 differs only in that the blessing is in the form of words of comfort; 1 Thess 2-4 is again gives thanks for their faith. Compare this to Galatians, where Paul wishes the Galatians well (Gal 1:2) but omits the ...


1

I don't think a "concrete," "certain," answer can be given ... However, perhaps there is a plausible explanation given the period, and given cultures at work: Titus, Timothy, Galatians, had notable issues regarding Gentile Christians and the controversy of Pharasaic/Rabbinic doctrines and traditions being taught in the Churches. In view of this, it ...


1

The Syriac Vulgate of the New Testament (Peshitta) appeared before the Fourth Century, and appears to shed some light that "the savior Jesus Christ" and "the great God" were appositive phrases. The verse appears as follows: Titus 2:13 (Syriac Vulgate) The word for "glory" (highlighted in yellow above) possesses the third person singular suffix. We ...


1

The 'and' is not concatenating different persons but rather is used to concatenate different characteristics of our blessed Lord Jesus, Who is both God and Saviour. Having said that, we know that our God is a tri-une God. He is One God in three persons, however this is not what is meant in this text. As when the Bible speaks of the appearing of the Lord ...


1

2 Tim 4:2 and Titus 1:3 both have τὸν λόγον (ton logon) in Greek. The decision whether to caplitalize or not is wholly down to the instinct of the editors of that particular translation. It is worth noting, too, that this is a "luxury" of English: not every language system as the same lower-, upper-case distinctions that modern English does. What the ...



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