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In Rom 1:8-10, Paul's blessing refers to the strong faith of the Romans; in 1 Cor 1:4-6 likewise, as Paul thanks God for their faith; 2 Cor 1:2-7 differs only in that the blessing is in the form of words of comfort; 1 Thess 2-4 is again gives thanks for their faith. Compare this to Galatians, where Paul wishes the Galatians well (Gal 1:2) but omits the ...


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One presumptive analysis is to view all the grammatical situations extant in the Greek New Testament (NA28) and Septuagint where the following morphological string occurs: <START> any definite article (in the genitive case) <WITH> any noun (in the genitive case) <WITH> any possessive pronoun (in the ...


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I don't think a "concrete," "certain," answer can be given ... However, perhaps there is a plausible explanation given the period, and given cultures at work: Titus, Timothy, Galatians, had notable issues regarding Gentile Christians and the controversy of Pharasaic/Rabbinic doctrines and traditions being taught in the Churches. In view of this, it ...


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The Syriac Vulgate of the New Testament (Peshitta) appeared before the Fourth Century, and appears to shed some light that "the savior Jesus Christ" and "the great God" were appositive phrases. The verse appears as follows: Titus 2:13 (Syriac Vulgate) The word for "glory" (highlighted in yellow above) possesses the third person singular suffix. We ...


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From the link posted by Paul Vargas, found here: Our restatement of Sharp’s rule is believed to be true to the nature of the language, and able to address all classes of exceptions that Winstanley raised. The “Sharper” rule is as follows: _ In native Greek constructions (i.e., not translation Greek), when a single article modifies two ...



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