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6

Good question. As fresh as the pop of a new bag of chips. If we looked at only Titus 1:2, certainly Paul would be seen as a racist according to our modern definition. Admittedly though, our modern view pretty well calls anyone living before the 1900s as a racist, but for now let’s just accept our modern notion as the best to use. Under this notion, if Paul ...


4

Most commentators circle around the ideas that these are either Jewish genealogies or a unknown Gnostic type of genealogies that include angels. However there seems to be strong support that it was a particularly Jewish disturbance being spoken of in Timothy and Titus, as compared to say Colossians which may have been related to a mystic type of Jewish ...


4

One early lesson in Classical Greek class is that neuter plural nouns in Greek function as a "collective" in the singular, and therefore can take verbs and their forms in the singular. The Greek word in question in 1 Tim 3:4 is τέκνa, which is neuter plural. REFERENCE: Smyth, Herbert Weir (1918). Greek Grammar. Cambridge: Harvard University Press, 264.


3

The pre-Pauline references to the brother magicians are rare. Other answers draw attention to the mention of the names by Pliny in his Natural History (XXX.1.11). This was published at the end of the 70s, however, and so is only evidence that the names were current by Paul's time. There was a theory that the second century BCE Jewish historian Artapanus, ...


3

Exactly as others have said: these names appear in Jewish non-biblical tradition, specifically in the Targum of Pseudo-Jonathan to Exodus 7:11, as well as in later Hellenistic sources (like Josephus). Martin McNamara discusses it here, and there is a lengthy discussion of the Jewish and Greek sources here as well (page 1-71). As Frank Luke noted in a ...


2

According to Pliny's natural history, in discussing the origin of magic in the world he mentions Jannes in relation to Moses. There is another sect, also, of adepts in the magic art, who derive their origin from Moses, Jannes, and Lotapea,Jews by birth, but many thousand years posterior to Zoroaster: and as much more recent, again, is the branch of ...


2

The exact same Greek words ("sound doctrine" in Titus 2:1) also occur in three other of Paul's writings - 1 Timothy 1:8-11 (NASB) 8 But we know that the Law is good, if one uses it lawfully, 9 realizing the fact that law is not made for a righteous person, but for those who are lawless and rebellious, for the ungodly and sinners, for the unholy and ...


1

Most Protestant scholars believe in justification by faith alone (obviously). And there is also a tendency to extend faith alone further, i.e. into sanctification too. Beginning with this doctrinal bias, they start with the presupposition that Romans and Galatians are the unquestionably authentic epistles because Romans and Galatians are the most useful to ...


1

2 Tim 4:2 and Titus 1:3 both have τὸν λόγον (ton logon) in Greek. The decision whether to caplitalize or not is wholly down to the instinct of the editors of that particular translation. It is worth noting, too, that this is a "luxury" of English: not every language system as the same lower-, upper-case distinctions that modern English does. What the ...


1

The context of 2 Tim 3:1-9 speaks of people who were ostensible converts to Christianity, but whose deeds betray their spiritual folly. That is, Jannes and Jambres are mentioned in a context of believers who are hypocrites. Thus the context of 2 Tim 3:1-9 is not talking about unbelievers but of apostates, who make an ostensible claim to faith. There is a ...



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