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Good question. As fresh as the pop of a new bag of chips. If we looked at only Titus 1:2, certainly Paul would be seen as a racist according to our modern definition. Admittedly though, our modern view pretty well calls anyone living before the 1900s as a racist, but for now let’s just accept our modern notion as the best to use. Under this notion, if Paul ...


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Most commentators circle around the ideas that these are either Jewish genealogies or a unknown Gnostic type of genealogies that include angels. However there seems to be strong support that it was a particularly Jewish disturbance being spoken of in Timothy and Titus, as compared to say Colossians which may have been related to a mystic type of Jewish ...


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What does Paul mean by “sound doctrine” in Titus 2:1 The word in the Greek text, and the definition of "sound" is— ὑγιαίνω (Theognis, Hdt.+; inscr., pap., LXX, Philo, Joseph., Test. 12 Patr.) be in good health, be healthy or sound. If the doctrine is to be "good," and "healthy," it must be in harmony with the rest of Scripture...ALL the rest of ...


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The exact same Greek words ("sound doctrine" in Titus 2:1) also occur in three other of Paul's writings - 1 Timothy 1:8-11 (NASB) 8 But we know that the Law is good, if one uses it lawfully, 9 realizing the fact that law is not made for a righteous person, but for those who are lawless and rebellious, for the ungodly and sinners, for the unholy and ...



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