New answers tagged textual-criticism
Leon R. Kass, in The Beginning of Wisdom, page 27, agrees that because the Hebrew lacks the definite article, the popular translation, “In the beginning” is incorrect. He cites Robert Alter (Genesis Translation and Commentary), who treats the first (and second) verse not as a declarative sentence but as a subordinate clause: “When God began to create heaven ...
my answer is Jesus is still with them, he said they will not fast till he is not with them anymore. he told them because of your unbelief you could not, the thing to remember is the holy spirit is not limited .once you add that verse it does not make sense anymore .mark 2:18,19 establishes that, in attempting to clarify, actually contradicts
I believe the answer to your question is no, the writers of the New Testament did not rely on the Hebrew text. The recently published Eastern Orthodox Bible New Testament footnotes every single Old Testament quote and assesses whether the quote agrees with the Greek Septuagint rather than the Masoretic Text, which is supposedly a faithful representation of ...
It seems to me the word for head can be compared to a mind, so if the mind of the woman (her husband) is uncovered (without guide) she shames her mind. If the mind (that is Messiah) of the man is covered (with alternative guide) he shames his mind). I believe John 17 will support this (with emphasis on verses 21 and 22) and 1st Corinthians 2 with emphasis ...
The Greek word is attempting to capture the Hebrew concept of "nefesh". The life force which animates the Body. The Soul is not the Spirit. The Spirt is what God gives.. Each language's word choice gets further from the orginal. By the time we get to English we are many times twice removed.
The so-called "received text" did not come from a compilation of actual Greek manuscripts. It was developed using the English KJV and the Greek Text develop mainly by Erasmus. And Erasmus didn't have many Greek Manuscripts and the ones he was using were over 900 years old.
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