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3

The issue here isn't one of translation, but rather that it's uncertain what the original Greek text said in this verse (called a "reading"). The committee making the translation has to decide which reading they think is the original, and different committees can make different decisions. This is a particularly fascinating example, as explained here. ...


5

The Idea in Brief The passage leans more toward the reading σπλαγχνισθεὶς based on various textual readings to include Ephraem Syrac's commentary on Tatian's Diatessaron. Discussion Based on best evidence, Arland et al (2012) provided this verse as follows in their Fourth Edition of The Greek New Testament: Mark 1:41 (mGNT) 41 καὶ σπλαγχνισθεὶς ...


5

As Wikis noted, there are many Bible versions which render the Greek aor. pass. part. masc. sing. nom. verb CΠΛΑΓΧΝΙCΘΕΙC (σπλαγχνισθεις) as "moved with compassion, " or "moved with pity". The form of that verb, however, properly means "to have the bowels yearn" (Strong's G4697). And the root of that verb form (σπλαγχνoν) refers to "the chief intestines, ...


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This question can be answered in two ways.This comment from @lasersauce must not be overlooked. So without scriptural or prophetic guidance on the mechanism (an equation?) for making use of a number of the beast, the correctness of such a number has no value. If you are asking from a "believers view" then the scripture that is relevant to your ...


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Rev.13:18 "Here is wisdom. He that has understanding, let him count the number of the beast; for it is the number of a man: and his number is 6-6-6". Allowing scripture to interpret scripture it is not difficult to see that 6-6-6 refers to "man" in his three fold composition, namely, spirit = 6; soul = 6; body = 6. It is a given! 1 Thes.5:23 "And the God of ...


2

The number "666" or "616" is taken from the passage in Rev. 13:18, Here is wisdom. Let him that hath understanding count the number of the beast: for it is the number of a man; and his number is Six hundred threescore and six. and has been arguably the most contested verse of the New Testament. The source of the problem is whether it is to be ...


6

Is this a significant scholarly position? Significant enough that it is discussed regularly in various scholarly places. For example, there is extensive discussion in a fairly recent work: D. A. Carson and Douglas J. Moo, An Introduction to the New Testament, 2nd ed. (Grand Rapids, MI: Zondervan, 2005), 142-150 (hereafter referred to as C&M). In that ...


5

There are a few scattered scholars who did believe this, though it is certainly not the prevailing opinion. The Wikipedia article, as well as most Biblical Encyclopedias, write that the text of Matthew doesn't look like a translation. However, at least a few scholars did believe that the Gospel of Matthew was first written in Hebrew. The Wikipedia article ...


3

There is no textual evidence to suggest that the Gospel we call "Matthew" was written in Hebrew, as opposed to Greek. The only scrap of evidence for this view is a statement made by Eusebius (an early Christian historian) that "Matthew collected the saying of Jesus in the Hebrew Language." It is not clear at all that this statement refers to the book we now ...



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