Tag Info

New answers tagged

0

it seems to me the more probable explanation is that Luke (written later) was embellishing the earlier Markan story for dramatic purposes, just as Mark 16:9-20 embellishes the original ending of Mark, and just as Matthew embellishes and corrects Mark. Occam's razor prefers this hypothesis, since there's no need to propose an unknown literary device to ...


2

The literary device at play here is not synecdoche, but literary dependence and elaboration. When the Gospels of Matthew, Mark and Luke are laid side by side and read synoptically ('with the same eye') in the original Greek language, it is clear that there is a literary dependency among them. Further study shows that Mark was the first to be written, with ...


8

There were two thieves reviling Jesus; one then repented. John Chrysostom, who was fluent in, and therefore familiar with, the Koine Greek of the New Testament, made no mention of the use of the grammar with regard to the apparent confusion and contradiction between the gospel accounts. Instead, he noted the following - Now that you may understand ...



Top 50 recent answers are included