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Question Restatement: What is the linguistic basis for the shortened form of "I am he" in Greek, "ἐγώ εἰμι", in the Septuagint, Isaiah 43:10. There are quite a few "I am .." statements in Isaiah, and perhaps this is intended to be an "Elliptical Construction", wherein the reader makes all of the necessary inferences. I wouldn't expect to find ...


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Question Restatement: (Part 1) Is there extra-Biblical precedence to render "ἐγώ εἰμι" as "I am he"? (Part 2) Are there any indications, in the Hebrew, or Aramaic Texts, or Liturgy, to indicate a formulaic use of "I am he" to justify inventing the "Exceptional Greek Syntax"? (Part 3) And if neither of the above, why is this Syntax used to translate ...


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The Idea in Brief The Hebrew verb to pierce (כָּרָה = H3738) in Psalm 40:6 is the same triliteral root for the Hebrew verb to prepare (כָּרָה = H3739). For example, this second verb (כָּרָה = H3739) appears translated in 2 Ki 6:23 as "prepared." In other words, both verbs have the exact same triliteral root, but have different meanings. The LXX translators ...


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I could be wrong but I believe you are assuming that the LXX is translated from the Masoretic and thus this would seem a poor translation of the MT, However, The 72 translators of the LXX did not use the MT to translate the LXX. There is not a surviving copy of the Hebrew that the LXX was translated from and thus your question as I understand it cannot be ...



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