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It is interesting that so many people think that Ezekiel 28:13 refers to Satan. The One Year Bible Companion says great care must be taken to read this passage with discernment. It says it is clear that Ezekiel describes this king in terms that could not apply to a mere man. Ezekiel may therefore have been condemning not only the king of Tyre, but Satan, who ...


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The basic answer to your question: Why does the Septuagint omit Isaiah 2:22 when it's in the Dead Sea Scrolls and Leningrad Codex? is of course: because the Septuagint was not translated from the Dead Sea Scrolls or the Leningrad Codex. That said, the more satisfying answer will be harder to come by. As in most cases where we see a discrepancy ...



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