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11

Dinah, Jacob’s only daughter, born by Leah, was a virgin. She went out to see the daughters of the land. In Gen. 34:2-3, the narrator then uses a series of vav-consecutives to describe a sequence of events. And Shechem, the son of Hamor: v. 2: וַיַּרְא אֹתָהּ ("saw her") וַיִּקַּח אֹתָהּ ("took her") וַיִּשְׁכַּב אֹתָהּ ("lay with her," i.e. "had ...


11

LXX with superscripted N refers to Codex Venetus; the use of the minus sign probably indicates that this witness does not have the reading referred to (for more, see Addendum, below). It is cited as such by e.g. Jeremy Hughes in his Secrets of the Times (Sheffield, 1990). Information about this codex is difficult to come by, but there is a description of the ...


8

See also the follow-up Q&A to this one on the Greek antecedents of the absolute use of ἐγὼ εἰμί in the New Testament which advances and nuances the discussion below. The Question This is an excellent question, and one that in different forms has been pondered by interpreters of John's gospel for centuries. My own way of capturing what is at stake here ...


6

The books of the Septuagint (= LXX, here not the Septuagint "proper", which is limited to the Pentateuch, but the whole of the Jewish scriptures in Greek) were produced by different translators; the various books thus exhibit vastly different styles and approaches to the task. LXX-Proverbs is well known for being among the most "free" in making the Hebrew ...


6

The question: What tools are the necessary tools to determine what NT Greek words correspond to the Hebrew words that were translated into the LXX? My first answer would be a working knowledge of classical Hebrew and koine Greek. I suspect this is not what OP has in mind, but it is the "right" answer. So, trying again: What tools are the necessary ...


5

Some Greek New Testament lexicons will also provide the equivalent Hebrew words (of the Old Testament) in the lexical entry. For example, in John 1:1, it is written, Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος I would like to know which Hebrew words are translated into the Greek Septuagint by the Greek word ἀρχή. Here is the ...


5

This is a good question -- or rather, set of questions. I begin by reiterating a comment from the Q&A linked by OP: to engage with this set of issues fully, one really needs to consult Catrin H. Williams, I Am He: The Interpretation of ʾAnî Hûʾ in Jewish and Early Christian Literature (WUNT II/113; Mohr Siebeck, 2000). There is plenty of other relevant ...


5

While @H3br3wHamm3r81 has provided a fine answer to this question, there is one more wrinkle that can be added for the sake of completeness. We know of a tradition of supplying the Tetragram (Y-H-W-H), HaShem, the name of God, in special characters from the Dead Sea Scrolls. One of the clearest places to see this is in the Psalms scroll from Cave 11: Or, ...


3

Yes, the Septuagint reflects an earlier version of the Hebrew Bible than the Masoretic text. Fragments of a pre-Masoritic version of the consonantal text of the Hebrew Old Testament have been discovered in Qumran (Dead Sea Scrolls); the consonantal text was canonised in the 1st century CE; the vocalised (Tiberian, Palestinian and Babylonian) versions were ...


3

All the differences between the Hebrew/Aramaic Old Testament and the LXX are in a helpful pdf (of Appendix E from SBL's Handbook of Style) which a person named Denise has posted on this page: http://community.logos.com/forums/p/67596/470753.aspx


3

The Idea in Brief The Hebrew verb to pierce (כָּרָה = H3738) in Psalm 40:6 is the same triliteral root for the Hebrew verb to prepare (כָּרָה = H3739). For example, this second verb (כָּרָה = H3739) appears translated in 2 Ki 6:23 as "prepared." In other words, both verbs have the exact same triliteral root, but have different meanings. The LXX translators ...


3

BibleHub about 4/5 of the way down one page gives verses and says “(e) More than half of the direct quotations from the O.T. in the Epistles of St Paul are taken from the LXX. without material change…” “In other passages St Paul departs still further from the LXX, quoting freely...” BibleHub Quotations from the LXX Another entity, about 1/3 of the way ...


2

The very short answer is: "no". For the Greek Septuagint see NETS; for the Aramaic Targumim see the Aramaic Bible series; for the Hebrew Masoretic Text, any reliable public translation will do. These textual traditions are sufficiently distinct that it would not make sense to have an amalgamated edition (which is what I take it is meant by "all combined ...


2

The answer to whether עַלְמָה means "young maiden" or "virgin" may lie in the answer to a second question. The meaning of the word אוֹת has a tremendous impact on how we read Isaiah 7:14. The word אוֹת as it is used in Tanach can generally be translated as "sign" or "omen." But as signs in the bible often come from G-d, אוֹת can also convey the meaning ...


2

The Idea in Brief The last section of Gesenius' Hebrew Grammar indicates that this specific verse contains aposiopesis, which provides for the awkward structure of the verse. That is, Jabez promises that the "if the Lord does (this and that) and..." and yet nonetheless the passage does NOT include any reference to what Jabez did in response to his vows. In ...


2

The theologian was right, at least on this point. As far as we know*, Paul did only quote from the LXX, not from the Hebrew texts. This may have been because as a diaspora Jew he was not sufficiently familiar with the Hebrew language (in spite of Acts 22:3) or so that his gentile converts could read his sources in Greek. Christopher D. Stanley says in As it ...


2

I could be wrong but I believe you are assuming that the LXX is translated from the Masoretic and thus this would seem a poor translation of the MT, However, The 72 translators of the LXX did not use the MT to translate the LXX. There is not a surviving copy of the Hebrew that the LXX was translated from and thus your question as I understand it cannot be ...



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