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The Question This is an excellent question, and one that in different forms has been pondered by interpreters of John's gospel for centuries. My own way of capturing what is at stake here would be to put it this way: what Jesus is reported as saying in John 8:58 caused outrage in his hearers; although reported here in Greek, it is safe to assume there is ...


6

The explanation is not contradictory. First we see how Paul expands the meaning of Habakkuk 2:4 in the relevant verse here in Romans - Romans 1:17 (GNT) δικαιοσύνη γὰρ θεοῦ ἐν αὐτῷ ἀποκαλύπτεται ἐκ πίστεως εἰς πίστιν, καθὼς γέγραπται, Ὁ δὲ δίκαιος ἐκ πίστεως ζήσεται. The key in this verse is that we live "from faith to faith" (ἐκ πίστεως εἰς ...


6

Not ambiguous, but inclusive in meaning Ambiguity implies two or more possible meanings that are unclear as to which it is, or more broadly simply being unclear. I do not believe that is the situation here at all. Examining the statements Let's start with the basically undisputed OT reference Paul is using in Romans. Habakkuk 2:4 The (very literal) ...


5

It is commonly believed that Job's original 10 children are in Heaven. The texts do say that Job received a "twice as much", and that he had "more": Job 42:10 And the LORD turned the captivity of Job, when he prayed for his friends: also the LORD gave Job twice as much as he had before. Job 42:12 So the LORD blessed the latter end of Job more ...


5

The books of the Septuagint (= LXX, here not the Septuagint "proper", which is limited to the Pentateuch, but the whole of the Jewish scriptures in Greek) were produced by different translators; the various books thus exhibit vastly different styles and approaches to the task. LXX-Proverbs is well known for being among the most "free" in making the Hebrew ...


4

Good question! The Greek ending -σμοσ makes a noun out of a verb. The verb "σαββατιζο", as used by Plutarch and Justin Martyr about keeping the sabbath, therefore becomes "the result of keeping the sabbath". In a similar way, "inflate", the act of increasing the size of something, becomes "inflation", the result of increasing the size of something. It ...


4

While @H3br3wHamm3r81 has provided a fine answer to this question, there is one more wrinkle that can be added for the sake of completeness. We know of a tradition of supplying the Tetragram (Y-H-W-H), HaShem, the name of God, in special characters from the Dead Sea Scrolls. One of the clearest places to see this is in the Psalms scroll from Cave 11: Or, ...


3

Yes, the Septuagint reflects an earlier version of the Hebrew Bible than the Masoretic text. Fragments of a pre-Masoritic version of the consonantal text of the Hebrew Old Testament have been discovered in Qumran (Dead Sea Scrolls); the consonantal text was canonised in the 1st century CE; the vocalised (Tiberian, Palestinian and Babylonian) versions were ...


3

All the differences between the Hebrew/Aramaic Old Testament and the LXX are in a helpful pdf (of Appendix E from SBL's Handbook of Style) which a person named Denise has posted on this page: http://community.logos.com/forums/p/67596/470753.aspx


3

Hermeneutics is not only about the deductive approach to interpreting Scripture (for example, grammar and syntax) but also the inductive approach, which is to infer the generalization from several pieces of information -- sort of connecting the dots. In other words, hermeneutics is both an art (subjective) and science (objective). The concept of the Sabbath ...


1

"In any dispute between the Hebrew text and the Greek translation, I would favor the Hebrew, it being closer to the source." Not always. Just because the Masoretic text is the majority and is written in hebrew does not mean that it trumps other texts. The internal evidence supports the ending of Deut 32:8 to read as "sons of god." Ps 82 does not make sense ...



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