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11

Yes, there is at least one Hebrew rendition of the LXX that is aimed at reconstructing its vorlage (i.e. the text from which it was translated, in this case unpointed Biblical Hebrew). The Parallel Aligned Hebrew-Aramaic and Greek text was created as part of the CATSS (Computer Assisted Tools for Septuagint Study) project under the direction of Emmanuel Tov ...


11

The Idea in Brief Before the appearance of the Masoretic Text in the Tenth Century, at least three early witnesses attest to the forty day period in Jonah: the Dead Sea Scrolls at both Wadi Murabba'at and at the so-called "Cave of Horrors" in Nahal Hever, which both date to the First Century; and, thirdly, the Targum Jonathan, which dates to the Second to ...


8

As alluded to in the question, the primary (mostly) complete witnesses to the text of the Septuagint are codices bound up with the Christian New Testament. Pride of place goes to Vaticanus in which we have a nearly complete Greek OT. Sinaiticus and Alexandrinus also provide valuable witness. These codices have been dated to the 4th Century CE. ...


5

The basic answer to your question: Why does the Septuagint omit Isaiah 2:22 when it's in the Dead Sea Scrolls and Leningrad Codex? is of course: because the Septuagint was not translated from the Dead Sea Scrolls or the Leningrad Codex. That said, the more satisfying answer will be harder to come by. As in most cases where we see a discrepancy ...


5

The comment of the Apostle Paul that “The worker deserves his pay” appears to have been the prevailing interpretation of this verse according to the oral traditions of the Jews during the First Century and beyond. For example, in regard to this passage from Deuteronomy, the Jewish historian Flavius Josephus wrote the following in his compendium on the ...


5

These reference the words of Jesus, found in Luke 10:7 (emphasis mine): 7 And remain in the same house, eating and drinking such things as they give, for the laborer is worthy of his wages. Do not go from house to house. Peter calls Paul's writings Scripture as well: 14 Therefore, beloved, looking forward to these things, be diligent to be found by ...


5

Subsequent to the publication of Greek Myths and Christian Mystery, referenced by another answer, Manolis Papoutsakis made an ingenious hypothesis that may finally solve the mystery as to how the odd translation arose. In his paper, "Ostriches into Sirens: Towards an Understanding of a Septuagint Crux" (Journal of Jewish Studies, Vol. LV, No. 1, Spring ...


5

This is a fantastic question, but one that appears to have no clear answer at this time. I've done some digging around and though I could not find an exact answer, I found some illuminating information that may help your or others in your research. Greek Myths and Christian Mystery by Hugo Rahner provides some significant insight. Beginning on page 357, he ...


4

The LXX could be construed to support either 'eternity' or 'the world' but not 'ignorance'. The relevant bit: καί γε σὺν τὸν αἰῶνα ἔδωκεν ἐν καρδίᾳ αὐτῶν (LXX, Rahlfs) indeed, he granted eternity in their heart (NETS) he has also set the whole world in their heart (Brenton) Both make sense as renditions of: גַּ֤ם אֶת־הָעֹלָם֙ נָתַ֣ן בְּלִבָּ֔ם ...


4

It appears that the LXX translator (rather than the NETS translator) "saw" a different text here. Typically זד gets translated (as you would expect), with something reflecting "insolent" or nasty:1 παράνομος : Ps 86[85]:14; 119[118]:85 ὑπερήφανος : Ps 119[118]:21, 51, 69, 78, 122 θρασύς : Prov 21:24 ἄνομος : Isa 13:11 On three occasions, however, there ...


4

The very short answer is: "no". For the Greek Septuagint see NETS; for the Aramaic Targumim see the Aramaic Bible series; for the Hebrew Masoretic Text, any reliable public translation will do. These textual traditions are sufficiently distinct that it would not make sense to have an amalgamated edition (which is what I take it is meant by "all combined ...


4

The Idea in Brief The Hebrew verb to pierce (כָּרָה = H3738) in Psalm 40:6 is the same triliteral root for the Hebrew verb to prepare (כָּרָה = H3739). For example, this second verb (כָּרָה = H3739) appears translated in 2 Ki 6:23 as "prepared." In other words, both verbs have the exact same triliteral root, but have different meanings. The LXX translators ...


3

Although my initial reaction to this question was (not unlike the response in another answer here) that obviously this day-of-the-week superscription (DWS) reflects the Jewish liturgical background of the translator, this conclusion depends on several assumptions: The phrase "τῆς μιᾶς σαββάτων" is original to the Old Greek translation of the Psalms ...


2

Susan has given a typically well-informed answer to this question, and Noah has expanded on it with his link to Hurtado. Allow me to add one small word of caution: There is a wide-spread tendency of New-Testament scholars to date Bible manuscripts solely on the basis of their handwriting to slots of typically 50 years (e.g., "first half of the 2nd century ...


2

Larry Hurtado made a table of all known 2nd and 3rd century Christian manuscripts together with what form the manuscript takes. This includes manuscripts where it is unclear whether it is Christian or Jewish in origin and some definitely Jewish texts for comparison. I think that means it likely includes all LXX manuscripts. At any rate it gives a large ...


2

The Idea in Brief The LXX speaks of two outcomes: one regarding the developed fetus and one undeveloped. The Masoretic Text however simply presents the fetuses in the plural, and in this respect there is no amplification or clarification between developed and undeveloped in the Masoretic Text. In summary, if the Masoretic Text carries the original literary ...


2

As the OP correctly notes, Hebrews 1:6: ὅταν δὲ πάλιν εἰσαγάγῃ τὸν πρωτότοκον εἰς τὴν οἰκουμένην, λέγει Καὶ προσκυνησάτωσαν αὐτῷ πάντες ἄγγελοι θεοῦ. (Westcott and Hort) And again, when he brings the firstborn into the world, he says, “Let all God's angels worship him.” (ESV) is most likely a quote of an LXX version of Deuteronomy 32:43 ...


1

It is interesting that so many people think that Ezekiel 28:13 refers to Satan. The One Year Bible Companion says great care must be taken to read this passage with discernment. It says it is clear that Ezekiel describes this king in terms that could not apply to a mere man. Ezekiel may therefore have been condemning not only the king of Tyre, but Satan, who ...


1

The question: What does the inclusion of τῆς μιᾶς σαββάτων in the LXX of Psa. 24:1 demonstrate about the religious identity of the translator(s) of Psa. 24:1 into the LXX? Forgive me if I'm oversimplifying, but doesn't the inclusion (or addition) of a phrase from the Hebrew Talmud logically suggest a Jewish religious identity? I don't see how it could ...


1

For the old testament, the Septuagint was used over the Masoretic test, where the reading found in it supported traditional Christian doctrine, more so than the reading found in the Masoretic text i.e. Psalm 22:16 "they pierced my hands and my feet." To answer the second part of your question, the Septuagint predates the new testament, so it contains the ...


1

The Hebrew is "וְאָזְנֶ֙יךָ֙ תִּשְׁמַ֣עְנָה דָבָ֔ר מֵֽאַחֲרֶ֖יךָ" – "your ears will hear a thing/word from behind you". The Hebrew does not detail who is speaking in ones ear; while many traditional commentaries understand the speaker in ones ear to be God or His messengers (see Rashi, Radak), it is still possible to understand the speaker to be a trickster ...


1

I could be wrong but I believe you are assuming that the LXX is translated from the Masoretic and thus this would seem a poor translation of the MT, However, The 72 translators of the LXX did not use the MT to translate the LXX. There is not a surviving copy of the Hebrew that the LXX was translated from and thus your question as I understand it cannot be ...



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