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The Question This is an excellent question, and one that in different forms has been pondered by interpreters of John's gospel for centuries. My own way of capturing what is at stake here would be to put it this way: what Jesus is reported as saying in John 8:58 caused outrage in his hearers; although reported here in Greek, it is safe to assume there is ...


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"In any dispute between the Hebrew text and the Greek translation, I would favor the Hebrew, it being closer to the source." Not always. Just because the Masoretic text is the majority and is written in hebrew does not mean that it trumps other texts. The internal evidence supports the ending of Deut 32:8 to read as "sons of god." Ps 82 does not make sense ...



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