Tag Info

Hot answers tagged

21

Before 1947, a good case could be made that the Septuagint represented a more ancient tradition than the Masoretic versions of the Tanakh. Since the Septuagint was produced before 132 BCE (and probably in the 3rd century BCE) and the earliest known Masoretic manuscripts date to the 10th century CE, the Greek translation might have fossilized an early ...


18

Excellent question! The Septuagint (LXX) was the version of the Bible used by the authors of the New Testament. Therefore, the authors sometimes quote the Septuagint rather than the Masoretic (Hebrew) text. One example: Matthew 1:23 NRSV "Look, the virgin shall conceive and bear a son, and they shall name him Emmanuel," which means, "God is with ...


12

In Judaism the final decision of which writings (Ketuvim, the third part of the Tanakh) were canonical did not happen until at least the end of the 1st century CE. This was after Christianity and Judaism had largely split, and so the two groups made different decisions about which writings were accepted as canonical. In particular, nascent Rabbinic Judaism ...


10

It's odd to me that this isn't literal. The early portion of Genesis (1-11) is usually very literal. In my studies, Numbers is more literal than Gen 1-11 (so literal that I called it "Greek vocabulary on top of Hebrew syntax"). Uses in the Greek The Greek word appears in the NT three times, all in Hebrews. (All scripture references are from the ...


10

No, the Tetragrammaton יהוה is never transliterated into the Greek Septuagint (LXX). Sometimes יהוה is not translated into the LXX (cp. Gen. 2:7 LXX). Sometimes יהוה is translated into the LXX as κύριος (cp. Gen. 4:3 LXX). Sometimes יהוה is translated into the LXX as ὁ θεὸς (cp. Gen. 4:1 LXX). Sometimes יהוה is translated into the LXX as κύριος ὁ θεὸς (cp. ...


8

Different ancient translators had different translation philosophies. Some were very rigid and always used Greek word X for Hebrew word Y. Others were more dynamic. We can actually use these philosophies to determine when different translators are responsible for different books. For example, the Greek of Numbers is very literal (except the name of the ...


8

There are plenty of web sites that will give you comparatives, however, my broad take on the subject is that the LXX is not generally speaking considered more authoritative than any Hebrew text. The translators were not especially careful (though certainly not sloppy.) The amount of textual variants in the Hebrew text are MUCH smaller than in the Greek, for ...


8

The Greek translation of Jewish scripture (the Septuagint) occurred between the 3rd and 1st centuries BCE. The canon of the Tanakh was finalized hundreds of years later. The Christian canon was debated from the 4th to the 16th centuries. We have a tendency of thinking of the Bible as written in stone, so to speak, but the canon has been the object of ...


7

What is a Recension? A recension is an edit on an existing work. For the Bible, this is usually distinct from a retranslation. If you were to take the KJV (1611) and simply remove the archaic language without working from the Hebrew and Greek, this would be a recension. A recension may also refer to a family of manuscripts. For example, the NT Alexandrian ...


7

The LXX and MT texts of Jeremiah are substantially different. The LXX is substantially shorter (around an eighth shorter) and the order of some of the text is different. This is much more substantial than most divergences between the LXX and MT. In general, there are two main ways in which the MT and LXX can differ: the Hebrew text that the LXX ...


7

Fraser Orr's answer is excellent and I only hope to supplement his excellent answer with a few thoughts regarding "reliability." When asking a question like this, it's important to state your purpose. Why are you asking this question? The logic is such that they have reliable uses and applications within their own domains and we need to know the domain in ...


7

IMO it is a mistake to consider the LXX too noteworthy. The NT authors quote from it under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, however that should not be taken to imply that the LXX translation as a whole is inspired. Wouldn't it be better to reference the Hebrew original? Yes, except when dealing with the NT quotations in question. And translators are ...


7

One of the most important aspects of the Septuagint is that it helps us understand how Greek was used by Jews in the 3rd century BC to talk about God and the Scriptures. This turns it into a valuable tool to look at the Greek of the NT and understand how to translate and examine it. Here is an excerpt from a Christianity.SE answer that I provided to ...


7

The Question This is an excellent question, and one that in different forms has been pondered by interpreters of John's gospel for centuries. My own way of capturing what is at stake here would be to put it this way: what Jesus is reported as saying in John 8:58 caused outrage in his hearers; although reported here in Greek, it is safe to assume there is ...


6

The reason I most often use the LXX is to find the concept the NT authors were using. Yes, they wrote in Greek, but they were thinking Jewish thoughts. Many times, you can take the Greek words in the NT, find them in the LXX, and see what Hebrew words they translated. For example, the word ecclesia is used in the NT in Matthew 16:18 and 18:17. Some argue ...


6

Not ambiguous, but inclusive in meaning Ambiguity implies two or more possible meanings that are unclear as to which it is, or more broadly simply being unclear. I do not believe that is the situation here at all. Examining the statements Let's start with the basically undisputed OT reference Paul is using in Romans. Habakkuk 2:4 The (very literal) ...


6

The explanation is not contradictory. First we see how Paul expands the meaning of Habakkuk 2:4 in the relevant verse here in Romans - Romans 1:17 (GNT) δικαιοσύνη γὰρ θεοῦ ἐν αὐτῷ ἀποκαλύπτεται ἐκ πίστεως εἰς πίστιν, καθὼς γέγραπται, Ὁ δὲ δίκαιος ἐκ πίστεως ζήσεται. The key in this verse is that we live "from faith to faith" (ἐκ πίστεως εἰς ...


5

The NET Bible note reads: Heb “the sons of Israel.” The idea, perhaps, is that Israel was central to Yahweh’s purposes and all other nations were arranged and distributed according to how they related to Israel. See S. R. Driver, Deuteronomy (ICC), 355-56. For the MT יִשְׂרָאֵל בְּנֵי (bÿney yisra’el, “sons of Israel”) a Qumran fragment has “sons of ...


5

I can't help with the Greek, but KJV's "shittim" is a transliteration of the Hebrew שִׁטִּים. JPS translates this as "acacia" too, and that's the translation I'm most used to seeing. Like some other specialized words (dolphin skins?), it's hard to know what the original meaning was. We don't have other occurrences of שִׁטִּים that make clear what kind of ...


5

Forms of the Hebrew word כַשֵּׁף are translated into Greek with equivalent forms of pharmakous: Exodus 7:11, Exodus 22:18, Deuteronomy 18:10, 2 Chronicles 33:6, Isaiah 47:9, Isaiah 47:12, Jeremiah 27:9, Daniel 2:2, Malachi 3:5. As you said, most of these places rule out poisoner from the context. Poisoner simply cannot work in them. The LXX also uses ...


5

I think "which is more reliable" is too imprecise a question. There are situations where the Dead Sea scrolls agree with the MT against LXX and vice-versa, and in some cases there's just no way to know which version is older. One more precise question is how often are the Qumran manuscripts close to MT and how often are they close to LXX. Wikipedia says ...


5

It is commonly believed that Job's original 10 children are in Heaven. The texts do say that Job received a "twice as much", and that he had "more": Job 42:10 And the LORD turned the captivity of Job, when he prayed for his friends: also the LORD gave Job twice as much as he had before. Job 42:12 So the LORD blessed the latter end of Job more ...


5

The books of the Septuagint (= LXX, here not the Septuagint "proper", which is limited to the Pentateuch, but the whole of the Jewish scriptures in Greek) were produced by different translators; the various books thus exhibit vastly different styles and approaches to the task. LXX-Proverbs is well known for being among the most "free" in making the Hebrew ...


4

     I propose that the variations seen in the genealogies of Genesis arose from an effort to praise or villify certain patriarchs. Specifically, there is evidence of a motivation to praise the first five generations from Adam to Mahalalel, and to villify Jared, Methuselah, and Lamech. I refer to the Wikipedia chart given above in ...


4

INDICATIONS OF LXX PROVERBS 1:7 IN GREEK NEW TESTAMENT(?) Conlusion: There are indications (reasons) to believe the LXX of Proverbs 1:7 has an canonical-theological influence, but the specific evidence of a references to this verse in the Gk. New Testament appears to be indeterminate. Nevertheless, we ourselves, may be reminded, wherever we read εὐσέβεια ...


4

While @H3br3wHamm3r81 has provided a fine answer to this question, there is one more wrinkle that can be added for the sake of completeness. We know of a tradition of supplying the Tetragram (Y-H-W-H), HaShem, the name of God, in special characters from the Dead Sea Scrolls. One of the clearest places to see this is in the Psalms scroll from Cave 11: Or, ...


4

Good question! The Greek ending -σμοσ makes a noun out of a verb. The verb "σαββατιζο", as used by Plutarch and Justin Martyr about keeping the sabbath, therefore becomes "the result of keeping the sabbath". In a similar way, "inflate", the act of increasing the size of something, becomes "inflation", the result of increasing the size of something. It ...


3

Acts 7:14 is part of a speech which Luke records. The speech is given by Stephen, a Greek Jew who no doubt would have read the Septuagint. The Septuagint (along with the Dead Sea Scrolls) varies from the Masoretic Text in both Genesis 46:27 and Exodus 1:5 and reads instead "75 people." It's likely Stephen was quoting this tradition.


3

I appreciate the question. I think it stems from some wrong presuppositions, though - namely, that sexual "love" is strictly within the domain of eros rather than agape. I agree that sexual love can be eros, but it is not the exclusive owner of it. In fact, all pure, other-centered love is agape. This applies just as much to the sexual arena as anything ...


3

Hermeneutics is not only about the deductive approach to interpreting Scripture (for example, grammar and syntax) but also the inductive approach, which is to infer the generalization from several pieces of information -- sort of connecting the dots. In other words, hermeneutics is both an art (subjective) and science (objective). The concept of the Sabbath ...



Only top voted, non community-wiki answers of a minimum length are eligible