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14

To find a Latin word in an English edition of the Old Testament of the Bible is an anomaly, to say the least. We would expect to find two things in an English edition of the Hebrew Old Testament: English translations of essentially any Hebrew part of speech except proper nouns (names), including but not limited to adjectives, adverbs, common nouns, ...


11

OP: Is it possible, through the interpretation of scripture, to determine approximately when this event happened? Yes, I believe it is. Luke 10:18 in Greek (SBL GNT), with the New American Standard Bible, reads this way: εἶπεν δὲ αὐτοῖς· Ἐθεώρουν τὸν Σατανᾶν ὡς ἀστραπὴν ἐκ τοῦ οὐρανοῦ πεσόντα. eipen de autois, Etheōroun ton Satanan ōs astrapēn ek ...


10

Historically, Luke 10.18 was often incorporated into a broader mythos concerning the fall of 'Lucifer' in prehistory. Hoppe briefly touches on this when commenting on Isaiah:1 In [Isaiah] 14:12 the prophet calls the king of Babylon the "Morning Star," which Jerome rendered into Latin as "Lucifer." Patristic and medieval interpreters, influenced by ...


10

The Idea in Brief The best translation in this passage is not “Lucifer” (or any similar translation with the image of the brightness of light), but instead “the one wailing aloud” falling from heaven. Discussion In the Masoretic Text the word הֵילֵל appears, but in the Dead Sea Scrolls the word appears instead as היליל. The following image (below) comes ...


7

Clearly No Distinction of Being Your core question is "Did the Synoptic writers intend to convey any distinction between διάβολος and σατανᾶς?" If by "distinction," you mean differing personalities (i.e. persons or beings), then I believe you have already answered your own question by noting the fact that Matthew and/or Luke uses διάβολος in places where ...


7

The lexical meaning of the noun שָׂטָן śāṭān in biblical Hebrew is "adversary" or the like. It occurs 27x in 23 verses in the Hebrew Bible. In most instances, it is clear this it is best translated by the word "adversary": in Psalm 109:6 it clearly refers to a hostile person; in the Samuel/Kings references, it refers to human opponents of Israel or its ...


6

Mark Edward did a fantastic job of covering the Biblical link between the serpent and Satan, so I will not re-hash that, but I would like to directly address the second part of the OPs question: was John the first to link these two figures together? Or had the two already been connected in Jewish thought at the time? If not, is there any way to explain ...


4

Howard Marshall addresses this concept well in his NIGTC commentary on Luke. Based on correlations with Aramaic, the best aspect for the imperfect used here might be a simple past tense. However, Luke could have chosen the imperfect to indicate an on-going process begun in the past. Marshall points out that the concept here is very active in Jewish ...


3

Context, Context, Context When reviewing this passage, it is important to remember three facts Most scholars believe that this book of the Bible is written to a gentile, "Theophilus" So it seemed good to me as well, because I have followed all things carefully from the beginning, to write an orderly account for you, most excellent Theophilus (Luke 1:...


3

"Lucifer" is used in Bible translations even before the King James Version (circa 1611). The Geneva Bible uses it (circa 1599), as does the Coverdale Bible (circa 1535). So it appears many subsequent translations kept the Vulgate's "Lucifer" word for the Hebrew הֵילֵל (hêylêl). (Note: the following view is pure speculation on my part.) I would imagine ...


3

When the KJV and other Reformation-era English translations were written, Lucifer was already seen as a proper noun for Satan The OED gives five instances of Lucifer being used as a proper noun before the KJV was written: OE Christ & Satan 366 Wæs þæt encgelcyn ær genemned, Lucifer haten, leohtberende. a1300 Cursor Mundi 442 And for þat he ...


3

I think this is basically a question about English usage. The Hebrew original has בָּאָרֶץ which you could translate in modern English either as “on the earth” or as “in the land”. It depends really on how you want to understand the word אָרֶץ . In pre-modern English the preposition “in” is not rarely used where in modern English you would have to say “on”. ...


3

Note: The context of the following argument is confined to the NT. The use of διαβολος in the LXX is another matter, entirely. There can be little doubt that διαβολος and σατανας are referring to the same individual. Clear support for this is given by the authors of the temptation passages in Matthew and Luke. Both authors introduce the tempter as "του ...


2

One Subordinate Clause or Two? The offered phrase suggests the last five Greek words of Lk.10:18 form one subordinate clause, that Jesus said Satan is like ‘lightning falling from heaven’ (i.e. Satan falls from heaven like lighting falls from heaven). Some English translations allow or may suggest this reading (e.g. NASB, NIV). But what would that ...


2

The meaning can be found in the preceding verses: Revelation 2:20-23: Notwithstanding I have a few things against thee, because thou sufferest that woman Jezebel, which calleth herself a prophetess, to teach and to seduce my servants to commit fornication, and to eat things sacrificed unto idols. And I gave her space to repent of her fornication; and she ...


1

It seems the story of temptation can only be explained in one of three ways: a talking snake, Satan disguised as a snake, or the whole story was a creation of man. Snakes are physically and intellectually incapable of speech, yet the biblical serpent was certainly not Satan. For Satan to have used the serpent means that Satan was able to deceive God, because ...


1

It is interesting that so many people think that Ezekiel 28:13 refers to Satan. The One Year Bible Companion says great care must be taken to read this passage with discernment. It says it is clear that Ezekiel describes this king in terms that could not apply to a mere man. Ezekiel may therefore have been condemning not only the king of Tyre, but Satan, who ...


1

This chapter of Isaiah is an encouraging account of how the Jews will return to the Land and, to be blunt, thumb their noses at the King of Babylon. Verse 4 says, "And you shall bear this parable against the king of Babylon, and you shall say, "How has the dominator ceased, has ceased the haughty one!" The razzing of the Babylonian king continues in the ...


1

If you would have quotes the specific Bible version then it would have helped. For instance I always prefer NKJV, Job 2:2 NKJV reads as 'And the Lord said to Satan, “From where do you come?" Satan answered the Lord and said, "From going to and fro on the earth, and from walking back and forth on it."' Other few common versions may read Satan's reply as: "......


1

Since Mark never uses "the devil" it is impossible to know what he thought about that word. Matthew uses "Satan" and "the devil" as synonyms in 4:10-4:11, so he certainly thought of them as interchangeable. (Though he may have preferred one to the other in some circumstances.) There is at least one place (and possibly two) where Luke changes a passage ...


1

Background The equation of Satan and the devil is a largely Christian concept that has little foundation in Judaism, so it is instructive to look at the Jewish concept of the satan (not a proper name) in the Second Temple period before considering how the Synoptics see Satan. Zechariah 3:1-2 has Satan as an adversary who wrongly accuses Joshua, but he is ...



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