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27

Good question - could take a book to answer! The key phrase which unlocks (or veils?) identity is in v. 12: "O Lucifer, son of the morning!" Hebrew: הֵילֵ֣ל בֶּן־שָׁ֑חַר | hêlēl ben-šāḥar Greek: ὁ ἑωσφόρος ὁ πρωὶ ἀνατέλλων | ho heōsphoros ho prōi anatellōn Grk trans.: the Day Star, which used to rise early in the morning And, important in a ...


14

Yes. The Hebrew שָׂטָן (śāṭān) is frequently transliterated into Greek as σαταν (satan) or σατανᾶς (satanas) — 36 times in the New Testament. The word διάβολος (diabolos) is also used (37 times). Diabolos is technically an adjective meaning “slanderous”, and it is occasionally used attributively, describing people (e.g. 1 Tim 3:11). However, like ...


14

To find a Latin word in an English edition of the Old Testament of the Bible is an anomaly, to say the least. We would expect to find two things in an English edition of the Hebrew Old Testament: English translations of essentially any Hebrew part of speech except proper nouns (names), including but not limited to adjectives, adverbs, common nouns, ...


12

An angel as a primeval enemy of humanity The Hebrew noun satan, along with related nouns and verbs, are semi-common in the Hebrew scriptures. These terms are used in a variety of contexts and refer to a variety of individuals. In Numbers 22.22,32, for example, it is an angel explicitly acting on God's behalf who is identified as a satan, meaning 'adversary'...


11

OP: Is it possible, through the interpretation of scripture, to determine approximately when this event happened? Yes, I believe it is. Luke 10:18 in Greek (SBL GNT), with the New American Standard Bible, reads this way: εἶπεν δὲ αὐτοῖς· Ἐθεώρουν τὸν Σατανᾶν ὡς ἀστραπὴν ἐκ τοῦ οὐρανοῦ πεσόντα. eipen de autois, Etheōroun ton Satanan ōs astrapēn ek ...


10

The Idea in Brief The best translation in this passage is not “Lucifer” (or any similar translation with the image of the brightness of light), but instead “the one wailing aloud” falling from heaven. Discussion In the Masoretic Text the word הֵילֵל appears, but in the Dead Sea Scrolls the word appears instead as היליל. The following image (below) comes ...


10

Historically, Luke 10.18 was often incorporated into a broader mythos concerning the fall of 'Lucifer' in prehistory. Hoppe briefly touches on this when commenting on Isaiah:1 In [Isaiah] 14:12 the prophet calls the king of Babylon the "Morning Star," which Jerome rendered into Latin as "Lucifer." Patristic and medieval interpreters, influenced by ...


8

The simple answer to the question is: we don't know specifically. So what do we know? He refers to it as an "weakness" or infirmity, as you have it. It's the word astheneia in Greek. The same word is used in both places in 12:9. This "thorn in the flesh" is probably not a reference to the idea of the flesh as the sinful nature, but more likely something ...


7

In Genesis 3:24, it is a Cherubim - an angel of the Lord who guards the Garden of Eden. They are depicted in the tabernacle and on the ark of the covenant, guarding the Throne of God. In all places, they are associated with angelic beings and are part of the host of heaven. The difficulty in giving a verse calling a cherubim an angel is that angelos is a ...


7

Within the Tanach/Old Testament there is no association of the angelic “adversary”, the satan¹ in the books of Job and Samuel, to be any sort of fallen or rebellious angel. Aside from the rather obscure verses about the nefilim in Genesis 6, I know of no Biblical verses that Jewish scholars take to refer to fallen or rebellious angels.² The verses in Isaiah ...


7

The lexical meaning of the noun שָׂטָן śāṭān in biblical Hebrew is "adversary" or the like. It occurs 27x in 23 verses in the Hebrew Bible. In most instances, it is clear this it is best translated by the word "adversary": in Psalm 109:6 it clearly refers to a hostile person; in the Samuel/Kings references, it refers to human opponents of Israel or its ...


7

Clearly No Distinction of Being Your core question is "Did the Synoptic writers intend to convey any distinction between διάβολος and σατανᾶς?" If by "distinction," you mean differing personalities (i.e. persons or beings), then I believe you have already answered your own question by noting the fact that Matthew and/or Luke uses διάβολος in places where ...


6

Mark Edward did a fantastic job of covering the Biblical link between the serpent and Satan, so I will not re-hash that, but I would like to directly address the second part of the OPs question: was John the first to link these two figures together? Or had the two already been connected in Jewish thought at the time? If not, is there any way to explain ...


5

The Hebrew noun satan, along with related nouns and verbs, are semi-common in the Hebrew scriptures. These terms are used in a variety of contexts and refer to a variety of individuals. In English, satan literally means something like 'opponent', 'adversary', or 'accuser'. The term is not a name, but a descriptive label for the action someone is taking. In ...


5

While not wanting to detract from @Davïd's terrific answer, I thought I would point out a few other linguistic connections that add some food for thought: Rev 12:8-9 is often mentioned in conjunction with Lk 10:18 due to the semantic similarities they share with Isa 14. While not containing any astral/lightning imagery (as Davïd noted), all three passages ...


5

Your parish priest has it right. The usage of the word "satan" (שטן) has evolved over time and several different usages were used concurrently. There is a good summary of the evolution of the usage on Bethelbooks.com. With a bit of simplification we can say that there are three phases in the evolution of the usage: Pre-exilic Post-exilic Post-OT In the ...


4

Satan (שָׂטָן) in Hebrew means “enemy” or “adversary” but this “opposition” is in the Old Testament directed in the specific sense of an “accuser”. The idea seems to be that since man has fallen into sin under the curse of Law, the Devil appeals to God’s own justice in order to accuse men and keep them under his domain of death. He is a kind of 'receiver ...


4

Wikipedia is helpful here; much of this answer is adapted from there. The Hebrew satan [שטן] means to oppose or obstruct, more actively than to simply be a stumbling block. In Job and Zechariah, though, mention is made of a particular celestial being identified as ha-satan [השטן] with the definite article ha-; so, “the satan” or “the adversary”. This angel’...


4

Though it's not going to be popular, I would suggest that these are the preferred readings of the "Lucifer" tradition. Both here, and Isaiah 13-14, the historical and traditional attempts to reconcile prophetic language with a very concrete concept of a location (Tyre and Babylon, respectively) probably resulted in such an understanding. I'm still on the ...


4

The verse in question has an interesting parallel to Psalm 48:1-2, where the Hebrew phrase found in Isaiah (בְּיַרְכְּתֵ יצָפֹון) occurs in the Psalm (יַרְכְּתֵי צָפֹון) and therefore draws our attention to both passages. Isaiah 14:13 (NASB) 13 “But you said in your heart, ‘I will ascend to heaven; I will raise my throne above the stars of God, ...


4

Howard Marshall addresses this concept well in his NIGTC commentary on Luke. Based on correlations with Aramaic, the best aspect for the imperfect used here might be a simple past tense. However, Luke could have chosen the imperfect to indicate an on-going process begun in the past. Marshall points out that the concept here is very active in Jewish ...


3

According to Matthew, this is part of the Sermon on the Mount which begins in 5:1 and continues through the end of Matthew 7. In 5:1, Matthew states: "Now when Jesus saw the crowds, he went up on a mountainside and sat down. His disciples came to him, 2 and he began to teach them." so we can conclude that according to the author of Matthew that this is ...


3

This is a good, piercing question that goes to the root of a lot. Unfortunately I have had to conclude [30 years or so of study] that we are not told the full answer to the question. First, there is nothing in the Genesis record that speaks plainly about a "Satan" being given authority over anything. Sticking to the text, we are told of a serpent who is a ...


3

It seems that anyone who is termed the "son of God" is someone who is directly created by God. Thus Adam is the "son of God" because he was directly created by God (Luke 3:38). Likewise, Jesus is the "son of God" because he was begotten by his heavenly father. Satan, like other angels, was created by the direct hand of God (Ezek 28:13), and therefore he too ...


3

Note: The context of the following argument is confined to the NT. The use of διαβολος in the LXX is another matter, entirely. There can be little doubt that διαβολος and σατανας are referring to the same individual. Clear support for this is given by the authors of the temptation passages in Matthew and Luke. Both authors introduce the tempter as "του ...


3

I think this is basically a question about English usage. The Hebrew original has בָּאָרֶץ which you could translate in modern English either as “on the earth” or as “in the land”. It depends really on how you want to understand the word אָרֶץ . In pre-modern English the preposition “in” is not rarely used where in modern English you would have to say “on”. ...


3

"Lucifer" is used in Bible translations even before the King James Version (circa 1611). The Geneva Bible uses it (circa 1599), as does the Coverdale Bible (circa 1535). So it appears many subsequent translations kept the Vulgate's "Lucifer" word for the Hebrew הֵילֵל (hêylêl). (Note: the following view is pure speculation on my part.) I would imagine ...


3

When the KJV and other Reformation-era English translations were written, Lucifer was already seen as a proper noun for Satan The OED gives five instances of Lucifer being used as a proper noun before the KJV was written: OE Christ & Satan 366 Wæs þæt encgelcyn ær genemned, Lucifer haten, leohtberende. a1300 Cursor Mundi 442 And for þat he ...



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