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"Law of commandments expressed in ordinances" is not referring to written Torah. He is referring to "the traditions of man" found in the Oral Traditions. The Oral Traditions which are recorded in the Talmud are Pharisaic laws. In other words there are Two Torahs to distinguish from in the Gospels and the Letters. The common mistake many make when trying to ...


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The law was not "abolished" at all. Matt 5:17 considered contextually is saying "I didn't come to parse the law into "obey this but disregard that". The word is the same word used regarding the destruction of the temple stone by stone: Mar 13:2 "Do you see these large buildings?" Jesus responded. "Not one stone here will be left on another that will ...


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The law given to Moses at Sinai was abrogated with the advent of the new covenant. To put it a better way: The entirety of the Mosaic Covenant was fulfilled in Christ. The law of Moses no longer serves as direct and immediate judge over the lives and conduct of God's people. God's children today obey the Law of Christ [Gal 6.2, 1 Cor 9:21]. Jesus, who is ...


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I think we have to read "abolish" as having a very particular meaning in Paul's writings when it comes to the law. For Paul, because his ministry so heavily focused on the Gentiles (those not born as Jews), the dominant theological question of his writing is "what does it mean for Gentiles to be saved?" There were a lot of very prominent voices in the ...


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Although Paul does not use the same word for 'abolish' as Jesus in Matthew 5:17, I think it helpful to bear that verse in mind, as Paul did not intend to contradict what Jesus says: 17“Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. 18For truly, I say to you, until heaven and earth ...



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