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6

The bridge that connects Jesus the Nazarene as "Yahweh" is Isaiah 8:13-14, which both Paul (in Romans 9:33) and Peter (in 1 Peter 2:6-8) use to make the nexus between "calling on Jesus" and "calling on Yahweh" to be saved. First, in Psalm 118:22 we find an unqualified mention of a stone "which the builders rejected" that in turn "became the chief ...


5

I think Paul is talking about the future resurrection, but with a very real sense of that future resurrection being something inevitable - giving us certainty, purpose, and hope in the present time. A few verses later we read about having been adopted as sons: 15 For you did not receive the spirit of slavery to fall back into fear, but you have received ...


5

Technically, ηὐχόμην is deponent which is a middle conjugation that is translated as active. The imperfect tense is an incomplete action. It's up to the translator to interpret whether it is iterative (periodic), inceptive (the beginning of the action), durative (a constant, ongoing action), etc. Translation of the imperfect is usually accompanied by the ...


4

As an imperfect it has a sense of continuation "I wished and continued to wish". Middle is usually translated as active, so Paul is doing the wishing. Indicative indicates it is an actual fact. "I, Paul, really did wish and continued to wish..." So is a conditional simple "I could wish" an equivalent? I could wish for a better one. It kind of loses the ...


4

My own conclusion is that referring to Paul's "present, converted state, or ... past, unconverted state" sidesteps Paul's actual argument, because it takes no account of the fact that Paul is not speaking of the 'unconverted' in general, but of Jews (ie those who know the law) in particular. There are two equally correct conclusions: Paul is speaking of ...


3

The Greek preposition phrase is εἰς ἡμᾶς (eis hēmas). The preposition εἰς preceding an accusative noun is frequently translated as "in" or "to," so both are grammatically possible. Here's a list of all the verses in which this prepositional phrase occurs. The majority of them are Pauline epistles. Acts 3:4 "look at us" (or "toward us") Romans 5:8 "showed ...


3

It may be plausible that Andronicus and Junias were in Rome, where they were imprisoned. That is, Paul was not collocated in Rome with them (when he wrote the letter) but simply added that they be greeted on his behalf by those who were in Rome (to whom he wrote the letter according to Rom 1:7). At the beginning of Romans chapter 16 he indicates that ...


3

The phrase 'poor of the Saints' (πτωχους των αγιων) is just what it means from the most reliable sources I have looked up. Kittel notes that this 'collection for the poor' without indicating there was any debate about its meaning in the original Greek: The accent is to be placed on the fact, not that they are poor saints at Jerusalem, but that they are ...


3

One possibility is that it came out of the meeting in Jerusalem described in Galatians 2, where Paul writes: and when James and Cephas and John, who were acknowledged pillars, recognized the grace that had been given to me, they gave to Barnabas and me the right hand of fellowship, agreeing that we should go to the Gentiles and they to the circumcised. ...


3

Your question seems to be rhetorical. Most likely, of course, Jesus knew the prophecy of Joel. Did he quote it? Very likely, even if we can not pin it down. Not all is written down. The book Revelation quotes it often. (It is said to be inspired by him. Apk 1, 1) There is a difference between the two situations in which persons would call on the Name of ...


3

εἰς is part of an idiom here and can also be translated as "unto." αὐτῷ ἡ δόξα εἰς τοὺς αἰῶνας, ἀμήν "(To) him (be) the glory unto the ages, amen." The idiom is εἰς τοὺς αἰῶνας ("unto the ages") and means "forever." Source: My years in Koine Greek classes, and I think I also read it in Porter's Idioms of the Greek New Testament. I think Edwards does a ...


2

As novice "translators", we are used to seeing ἀρχῇ in passages such as John 1:1 and associating it with the English word, "beginning". However, it is inaccurate to think that ἀρχῇ (in all of its various forms) means "beginning". That is one meaning of some forms of the word in some cases. There isn't really a good direct translation into English that ...


2

In short, Paul sees his outreach to the Gentiles as a ministry to Israel (Romans 11:12-15). God promised Abraham that in his seed all the nations (Gentiles) of the world would be blessed (Genesis 22:18; Galatians 3:15). And Isaiah prophesied In the last days the mountain of the Lord’s temple will be established as the highest of the mountains; it ...


2

An alternative explanation could just be rooted in practicality. The pattern had already been established by the Antiochene church in Acts 11:27-30. Agabus predicted an imminent famine and the church in Antioch. There were many famines during Claudius's reign (41-54), the most severe of which occurred in Judea around 46-47. Because of the imminent threat, ...


2

"Principalities" and "powers" are separated in the original language. The structure is similar to the ESV rather than the KJV. I will, therefore, treat them separately. Principalities The underlying word here can carry a range of meanings. In Romans 13:3, for instance, it refers to a human magistrate. In Ephesians 6:12 it is instead contrasted with "flesh ...


2

Is Paul speaking of his past or his present state in Romans 7? Or another way of asking is, Is the man of Romans 7 an unregenerate man or a regenerate born again Christian? This is probably one of the most debated chapters in all of the Bible and how one interprets this chapter has a lot to do with how one can interpret other scripture as well. Things such ...


2

Because each one of these translators believes that "freed from" is the "dynamic equivalent" of "to be justified from", which is hardly natural in English. Are they right? That is a somewhat different question. Their choice does have the slight advantage of avoiding the interpretation Luther put on the verse, which really was his 'eisegesis'. Also, Thayer's ...


2

The word certainly means "fellow-prisoners," but concerning the phrase "and my fellow-prisoners," John Gill writes, either at Philippi, or in some other place; for though we read only of the apostle's being in prison at that place, and at Rome, yet it is certain from his own account, (2 Cor. 11:23) ; that he was frequently imprisoned; and Clement of Rome ...


2

It might help to look at the Greek that the translators see when they look at this verse: 13:7 ἀπόδοτε πᾶσιν τὰς ὀφειλάς τῷ τὸν φόρον τὸν φόρον τῷ τὸ τέλος τὸ τέλος τῷ τὸν φόβον τὸν φόβον τῷ τὴν τιμὴν τὴν τιμήν Believe it or not, each of the highlighted words are a single entry in the Strong's dictionary: ho <3588> 1) this, that, these, ...


2

The NLT is the only translation I could find that took the liberty of translating the end of verse 7 as "honour those in authority". The Good News Bible is in a similar vein in its translation of Romans 13:6-7: That is also why you pay taxes, because the authorities are working for God when they fulfill their duties. Pay, then, what you owe them; pay ...


2

The answer is in verse 13:11, "In all this, remember how critical the moment is...". That generation lived in a state of heightened Messianic expectation, of final judgement, a kind of unscheduled Yom Kippur. Paul's exhortations are in this context. He is telling people to "put their houses in order" as Tacitus would say, square their books, avoid ...


2

I'm currently reading Edmund P. Clowney's Preaching Christ in All of Scripture. In it he quotes C. H. Dodd: Wherever the term Kyrios, Lord, is applied to Jehovah in the OT, Paul seems to hold that it points forward to the coming revelation of God in the Lord Jesus Christ.—The Epistle of Paul to the Romans, 169. Note that Kyrios is a Greek word, ...


2

This type of genitive, if indeed it is understood as "glorious liberty," is known as "attributive genitive" or "descriptive genitive." If X and Y are nouns, such that "X of Y," then let Y be converted to an adjective, and let Y precede and describe X. Another example would be Rom. 6:6, where the KJV has "body of sin." This could be ...


1

Paul is drawing a parallel between the our bodies and the ground (from which we are formed), which both "groan" in hope to be liberated from the curse of Adam. When Paul says that the whole creation "suffers the pains of childbirth" (Rom 8:22), he is making a direct reference to the sin of Adam, which precipitated the curses from God (that included the ...


1

When we seem to face contradiction, it sometimes comes from different meanings of words. (I also appreciated sarah's pointing out the grammar in the Y that came to precede the Hoshea which became in transliteration Iesous (Septuagint Greek for Joshua and Greek for Yehoshua, that is Jesus)). An important aspect to consider may be this one, in addition: ...


1

Water Baptism From various comments, I see that I need to start by defending the idea that Paul has water baptism in mind. The word Paul uses is baptizo <907>, which pretty much meant an immersion under water. In Acts we begin to see the prophesy of John the Baptist (John 1:19–34) that Jesus would baptize with the Holy Spirit. But we also see ...


1

Since love is the putting of others first. Not loving, or hate means simply to put them not first. Even going as far as rejection is not required. With Jacob and Esau. The first was made last and the last made first. Esau was only second. In the law of the flying axe head: Deut 19.5 As when a man goeth into the wood with his neighbour to hew wood, ...


1

I went over this with some pastors. They have the idea that the atonement in both Old and New Testaments do both, propitiate and expiate. But there is a problem here. Why are both done when only one is necessary? That is, if the purpose of atonement is to expiate (cover, cancel out, remove sin) then WHY would God still be angry? So, why did God provide ...



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