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9

Why is “christou” translated “God” in KJV Romans 10:17? It isn't. The text base used for the KJV was primarily the 1588/89 and '98 editions of Theodore Beza, occasionally departing to follow Stephanus's 1550 Novum Testamentum. These read:1 αρα η πιστις εξ ακοης η δε ακοη δια ρηματος θεου This was correctly translated in the KJV ...the word of ...


7

There are several Greek words occasionally translated "things", but in Romans 8:28, Greek is using the adjective πᾶς (all) substantivally, that is, as a noun. In English, adjectives require an explicit noun to accompany them. In Greek, the adjective itself can represent both the attributive and the substantive component of an idea. When a Greek adjective is ...


5

First let's do a quick exercise: Forget all the discussion and simply read this without the missing word: For their women exchanged ______ relations for those that are contrary to nature; v27 and the men likewise gave up ______ relations with women and were consumed with passion for one another. If you read it without the term "natural" you still ...


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Context and Logic Answers The context of the comparison in Romans 2 is between Jew and Gentile. The former are "under the law" and the latter "without the law" (v.12, ESV). Now consider the alternative you are questioning: For when Gentiles, who do not have the law by nature, do what the law requires... While this is a true statement, and "would ...


5

The Uses All four instances of the adjective πολύς in v.15 and 19 that are used substantively to refer to "the many" people are articular masculine plural forms, three being nominative case (οἱ πολλοὶ), with the second articular version in v.15 an accusative case (τοὺς πολλοὺς) as the object of the prepositoin εἰς ("to"). Two instances of the anarthrous ...


4

Romans 10:19 But I say, did Israel not know? First Moses says: "I will provoke you to jealousy by those who are not a nation, I will move you to anger by a foolish nation." 20 But Isaiah is very bold and says: "I was found by those who did not seek Me; I was made manifest to those who did not ask for Me." 21 But to Israel he says: "All day long I have ...


3

It refers to the pattern of priorities for the audience's lives. First, notice where this occurs in the context of the letter. After the presentation of the kerygma in Chapters 1-11, the first two verses of Chapter 12 stand at the beginning of the "hortatory" section of the letter (12:1 - 15:13). Here the gospel message is expounded in terms of its ...


3

The phrase is "ἐφευρετὰς κακῶν" which literally translates as 'inventors of bad/evil' and forms part of a larger catalogue of 21 vices that can be split into 3 groups as follows: a. one group of four vices (in the original each in the dat. s.), these four being introduced by the words “having become filled with every kind of”; b. one group of ...


3

There are at least three words that can designate "thing(s)" All word links below are to Liddell and Scott, A Greek-English Lexicon found online at http://www.perseus.tufts.edu. πᾶς (pas) Regarding Romans 8:28 specifically, this answer did well in noting how the neuter plural πάντα (panta) can have that idea "all things" reflected in translation. The ...


3

Coital vs. Non-Coital Sex: Rom.1:26-27 in Context Firstly, ‘natural relations’ is a modern, dynamic translation, and its technical meaning in theological circles may mislead. So let’s start with the usual literal translation of φυσικὴν χρῆσιν, or “natural use” (e.g. KJV, Young, Darby, Webster) in v.26b: “Females exchanged the natural use into that ...


3

Let's follow the context: Chapter 5: when there is no commandment to break, nothing has been broken. Sin has not been "committed." But death in the world was evidence that sin has existed (and remains) since Adam. After comparing Jesus with Adam 5 times, he introduces the real purpose of the law: an instrument to magnify, for us, the reality of sin. But ...


3

The Greek word Αββα occurs three (3) times in three (3) verses in the Textus Receptus. Mark 14:36 καὶ ἔλεγεν Αββα ὁ πατήρ πάντα δυνατά σοι παρένεγκε τὸ ποτήριον ἀπ᾽ ἐμοῦ τοῦτο ἀλλ᾽ οὐ τί ἐγὼ θέλω ἀλλὰ τί σύ (TR, 1550) Rom. 8:15 οὐ γὰρ ἐλάβετε πνεῦμα δουλείας πάλιν εἰς φόβον ἀλλ᾽ ἐλάβετε πνεῦμα υἱοθεσίας ἐν ᾧ κράζομεν Αββα ὁ πατήρ (TR, 1550) ...


2

The OP is right - it appears Matthew 7:22 implies: Those who have invoked the power of God for prophecy, exorcism and miracles may still be condemned on the day of Judgement. And from that one can conclude... Therefore, NO assurance of salvation can be given, even when invoking the powerful name of Jesus Christ. And even more scandalous in ...


2

In Rom.2:14, does φύσει (physis, ‘by nature’) modify backward or forward? Does Paul say, “When Gentiles, who do not have the law by birth, do what the law requires ...” Or does he say, “When Gentiles, who do not have the law, instinctively do what the law requires ...” Though both readings make sense within Paul’s argument, and though I’d like to hear ...


2

Some think Paul uses these different modes of expression randomly without any purpose. "There is no distinction as to the meaning to be sought between ἐκ πίστεως (by faith) and διὰ πίστεως (through faith,) as Paul uses both forms indiscriminately; ἐκ, for example, in 1:17, 3:20, 4:16, &c., and διά in 3:22, 25, Gal. 2:16, and sometimes first ...


2

In general different words are used to convey different meanings: Children (τέκνα) The Spirit itself beareth witness with our spirit, that we are the children (τέκνα) of God. (Romans 8:16 KJV) That is, They which are the children (τέκνα) of the flesh, these are not the children (τέκνα) of God: but the children (τέκνα) of the promise are ...


2

Before we compare the two verses, we should first determine the original message and context given when they were written. » [1 Timothy 2: 9-16] (NASB) 9 - Likewise, I want women to adorn themselves with proper clothing, modestly and discreetly, not with braided hair and gold or pearls or costly garments, 10 - but rather by means of good works, as is proper ...


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Romans 5:15 (KJV) But not as the offence, so also is the free gift. For if through the offence of one many (1. G4183 masculine, singular) be dead, much (2. G4183 neuter, singular) more the grace of God, and the gift by grace, which is by one man, Jesus Christ, hath abounded unto many. (3. G4183 masculine, plural) In this verse the Greek adjective, ...


1

This question is very difficult to answer without entering into the realm of theology about the sovereignty of God. It is important to remember that Paul held philosophical and theological views that contradict those that modern Americans hold. The English texts use the word all(Greek παντα). To my knowledge there are no other instances where "παντα" is ...


1

NRSV Rom. 11:11   So I ask, have they stumbled so as to fall? By no means! But through their stumbling salvation has come to the Gentiles, so as to make Israel jealous. 12 Now if their stumbling means riches for the world, and if their defeat means riches for Gentiles, how much more will their full inclusion mean! NRSV Rom. 11:13   Now I am ...


1

There is a distinction. The Spirit Himself witnesses with our spirit that we are children of God (Rom. 8:16; cf. John 1:12). The Spirit witnesses to our most elementary relationship with God, that is, that we are His children; it does not witness that we are His sons or His heirs. The fact that the "begetting" Father wants His children to grow unto ...


1

In the salutation at the beginning of his letter to the Romans, Paul wants to make clear his qualification to expound the gospel. Therefore, the "we" in verse 5 is tied to his apostleship & the grace he has received. He links both to the "resurrection of Jesus Christ our Lord" as well as the foundations of holy Scripture & the prophets. Then you ...


1

The Idea in Brief In both passages (in Deuteronomy and Romans) the "Word of God" is what saves man. According to the Christian New Testament, this same "Word of God" was in direct reference to Jesus of Nazareth. Discussion In the Christian New Testament in Romans Chapter 10, the Apostle Paul identifies Jesus of Nazareth within the Torah, where "the ...


1

To be honest there are several possible interpretations most of which are not worth considering, therefore I will only explain the only one that seems best. The nuts and bolts of it are this: In Deut 30 Moses is saying ‘the law clearly spells out how to be righteous and is not too difficult to understand.’ One does not have to do the impossible to get what ...


1

There is no instance in which Paul unambiguously calls Jesus "God" in any of his letters, so the translation in the NIV is contrary to Pauline usage. Many scholars cite an alleged parallel at Titus 2:13 to justify the translation "Christ, who is God over all" in Romans 9:5. However, Titus 2:13 only calls Jesus "THE GLORY OF our great God and Savior" or ...


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Short Answer: Being "allotted a measure of faith" is just another way of saying that you've been "given a particular function in the Church". This is a great question. I think you were on the right track when you asked whether verse 3 is connected to verse 4. Yes it is! When seeking to understand a confusing verse, step 1 should always be to read it in ...


1

Part of Paul's intention that we may undervalue, if we view it as somewhat transcendental, is his desire to increase the praise from the earth to God, who admittedly deserves all praise. Paul lists praise to God as one desired result of this offering (2 Corinthians 9:12-13). He contrasts the world's religions with the fact that God deserves eternal praise ...


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Romans 6:7 ὁ γὰρ ἀποθανὼν δεδικαίωται ἀπὸ τῆς ἁμαρτίας. (Rom 6:7 BGT) The verb δικαιόω doesn't simply mean 'justified' it has the sense of being vindicated or been proven innocent. Certain lexicons point out that when the verb is in the passive voice it has the sense of being acquitted or freed from a court of law. See from example the entry in Gingrich: ...



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