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8

Short Answer: Yes, they would know what he meant The longer answer is that the letter to the church in Rome (1:7) was to a mixed group of Gentiles (1:13) and Jews (2:17). Most believe the church started from some of the Jews present at Peter's preaching during Pentecost, the "visitors from Rome" (Act 2:10; NKJV/ESV/NASB). Starting at 2:17, Paul begins more ...


7

ὁ κηρύσσων μὴ κλέπτειν κλέπτεις; He who preaches to not steal, do you steal? ὁ λέγων μὴ μοιχεύειν μοιχεύεις; He who says to not commit adultery, do you commit adultery? ὁ βδελυσσόμενος τὰ εἴδωλα ἱεροσυλεῖς; He who abhors idols, do you [X]? As you mentioned, there is a clear opposition between the former clause and the latter clause ...


6

The question of how "adoption" as used metaphorically by Paul relates to modern notions of adoption is not as important as comparing it to other ancient understandings. Once this is in place, however, the further comparison of the concept from Roman antiquity with modernity (in industrialized West, by implication?) can benefit from those findings. The Texts ...


6

This verse happens to appear in the portion of Scripture that is a key part of my dissertation. This is all my own work (and thinking through Romanides's examples helped solidify further my own take on the verse that I had previously come to). Romanides's Errors Romanides makes some errors in his argument that should be exposed. Your quote from him was as ...


5

First let's do a quick exercise: Forget all the discussion and simply read this without the missing word: For their women exchanged ______ relations for those that are contrary to nature; v27 and the men likewise gave up ______ relations with women and were consumed with passion for one another. If you read it without the term "natural" you still ...


5

Context and Logic Answers The context of the comparison in Romans 2 is between Jew and Gentile. The former are "under the law" and the latter "without the law" (v.12, ESV). Now consider the alternative you are questioning: For when Gentiles, who do not have the law by nature, do what the law requires... While this is a true statement, and "would ...


4

THE ONE WHO IS SPEAKING It seems so clear to me that the one who is speaking in Romans 7:14-25 is not only a mature Christian but an apostle at that. However, I believe the apostle is speaking in this section about himself as he is naturally (i.e. 'in the flesh' vs.14; 18) and not about his identity in Christ - the 'new man' (Eph 2:24), made alive through ...


4

I have been looking at this same verse the past few days. There are three important questions in my opinion for understanding this verse: (1) what is the subject of συνεργεῖ, (2) what is the syntax of the dative τοῖς ἀγαπῶσιν τὸν θεὸν, and (3) what is the syntax of πάντα? The evidence indicates to me that the subject of the verb συνεργεῖ is the Holy Spirit ...


4

It is helpful to understand the purpose(s) of the Mosaic Law. Quickly: It was intended to point people to their need for a Savior (Gal 3:19; Rom 5:20). It was intended to highlight their sinful nature (Rom 7:7). It taught many aspects of God and peoples' relationship to him. For examples, the sacrificial system was a reminder of humanity's need for a ...


4

May Viably Be Construed as Either Middle or Passive Voice Your observation about the grammar of the verb compared to the English translations is very astute. Unfortunately, I do not think grammar itself will entirely answer this question. And context fits either option as being viable as well. If Passive, then in a Sense, All Three of Your Ideas are ...


4

Great question. The short answer is that there is nothing explicit in the text of Scripture that proves without question that Paul reached Spain, but there is some evidence (both in and out of Scripture) which suggests that he did (at least to some scholars.) A couple of sources which you might find helpful are Homer A. Kent, The Pastoral Epistles, (Moody ...


4

This, from the New Bible Commentary, 2nd Edition (1954), on Mark 14:36: "Abba (36) is Aramaic for 'Father.' The addition of Pater (Father) is probably not a translation by Mark. Some think the two words together are a very early liturgical formula of address in prayer. But it is more likely that they reflect a natural prayer habit of Jesus Himself, which ...


3

Apparently the Theory is not from Analysis of Pre-Extant Texts If C. Marvin Pate is correct in his Romans commentary statements (no page numbers shown in that Google Book link, but it is under the section where he discusses those verses in the commentary), then the two main reasons this becomes a question at all for this passage has nothing to do with any ...


3

Fantastic question! Although I don't have time to craft a thorough answer, I'd like to offer some observations. (Note: I am narrowing my discussion to the two principal alternatives you suggested: possessive or subjective genitive -- i.e., God's righteousness, or believers'.) First, I would suggest that Paul's own commentary on this particular phrase is ...


3

Psalm 51:4 (v.6 in Hebrew) In BHS1 v.4 is v.6, and the construction in Hebrew is an infinitive construct with both a prepositional prefix and a 2nd person singular pronominal suffix attached (בְשָׁפְטֶֽךָ). The pronominal suffix can be used on an infinitive construct as either a subject or object of the verb.2 That means there is flexibility in the ...


3

Well, there is some ambiguity around the meaning of the phrase τοὺς πτωχοὺς τῶν ἁγίων, although the correct choice appears to be mostly a settled issue among modern translations and commentaries. To define our terms: τοὺς πτωχοὺς = the poor = head noun τῶν ἁγίων = the saints = genitive (in the genitive case as a reflection of its relationship with τοὺς ...


3

The heart of the problem is that the earliest manuscripts-the uncials and papyri don't have punctuation. There has got to be a comma and or period in there, but where? Murray Harris in his study of this question found that, of the 56 commentaries he consulted, 36 felt the reference was to Christ, 13 felt it was a reference to God and 7 were unsure. Harris ...


3

The phrase is "ἐφευρετὰς κακῶν" which literally translates as 'inventors of bad/evil' and forms part of a larger catalogue of 21 vices that can be split into 3 groups as follows: a. one group of four vices (in the original each in the dat. s.), these four being introduced by the words “having become filled with every kind of”; b. one group of ...


2

The language used in Rom 12:1 is symbolic of temple and alter related service by priests but not in the way you think. Paul never intended to require christians to imitate the ultimate sacrifice of Jesus by hoping that their good manners in the flesh would be a pleasing sacrifice to God for it is written "In our flesh dwelleth no good thing." Rather, ...


2

It appears that the ESV et. al. are adding the word conflicting from how they see the thoughts acting. The notes on the NET Bible read : tn Grk "their conscience bearing witness and between the thoughts accusing or also defending one another." The NET also adds conflicting in its translation. ...their conscience bears witness and their conflicting ...


2

The sources that Liddell and Scott cite for meanings other than 'glory' are all much older than the NT: Homer (7-8th century BC) Aeschylus (5th century BC) Euripides 5th century BC) Herodotus (5th century BC) Pindar (5th century BC) Demosthenes (4th century BC) Plato (4th century BC) Thucydides (4th century BC) Xenophon (4th century BC) Liddell and Scott ...


2

This is an instant where the Greek doesn't capture it's original sense in the Hebrew. In Hebrew 'kabod'(glory) originally meant 'weight'. We see this illustrated in 2 Chron. 5:14, So that the priests could not stand to minister by reason of the cloud: for the glory of the LORD had filled the house of God. In Ex. 33:22, the Lord says to Moses, ...


2

The context indicates that the people are still judged -- thus, some transgression must still be "charged" or "accounted" to them. Look and the verse after it: Yet death reigned from Adam to Moses [since death happened, there must be sin and transgression], even over those whose sinning was not like the transgression of Adam [Adam sinned against a specific ...


2

Coital vs. Non-Coital Sex: Rom.1:26-27 in Context Firstly, ‘natural relations’ is a modern, dynamic translation, and its technical meaning in theological circles may mislead. So let’s start with the usual literal translation of φυσικὴν χρῆσιν, or “natural use” (e.g. KJV, Young, Darby, Webster) in v.26b: “Females exchanged the natural use into that ...


2

Some think Paul uses these different modes of expression randomly without any purpose. "There is no distinction as to the meaning to be sought between ἐκ πίστεως (by faith) and διὰ πίστεως (through faith,) as Paul uses both forms indiscriminately; ἐκ, for example, in 1:17, 3:20, 4:16, &c., and διά in 3:22, 25, Gal. 2:16, and sometimes first ...


2

In Rom.2:14, does φύσει (physis, ‘by nature’) modify backward or forward? Does Paul say, “When Gentiles, who do not have the law by birth, do what the law requires ...” Or does he say, “When Gentiles, who do not have the law, instinctively do what the law requires ...” Though both readings make sense within Paul’s argument, and though I’d like to hear ...


1

Although Paul is not specific about the "evils" he practiced, (vs 19.) we know that they were a culmination of sins that were counter to his mindful desires not to do them, but did them as a result of a mind vs. flesh struggle. To be more specific it's necessary to examine the context of Romans chapter 7. Romans chapter 7 verses 7-25 are the subject of much ...


1

Interesting question: the TR(Textus Receptus) version says, "θεὸς ἐμέρισεν μέτρον πίστεως" or "God has-allotted a-measure of-faith". This would seem to suggest that the "πίστεως" of the KJV, which was translated from the TR substituted "a" for "the", confirming your suspicions about whether the 'amount of faith' measured was measured according to one's ...


1

In Romans 1:16, Paul says, "For I am not ashamed of the gospel, for it is the power of God for salvation to everyone who believes, to the Jew first and also to the Greek.” (Romans 1:16) This latter phrase is repeated in the immediate context of Rom 2:12 as well, "There will be tribulation and distress for every human being who does evil, the Jew first and ...



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