Tag Info

Hot answers tagged

7

There are several Greek words occasionally translated "things", but in Romans 8:28, Greek is using the adjective πᾶς (all) substantivally, that is, as a noun. In English, adjectives require an explicit noun to accompany them. In Greek, the adjective itself can represent both the attributive and the substantive component of an idea. When a Greek adjective is ...


7

The question of how "adoption" as used metaphorically by Paul relates to modern notions of adoption is not as important as comparing it to other ancient understandings. Once this is in place, however, the further comparison of the concept from Roman antiquity with modernity (in industrialized West, by implication?) can benefit from those findings. The Texts ...


7

ὁ κηρύσσων μὴ κλέπτειν κλέπτεις; He who preaches to not steal, do you steal? ὁ λέγων μὴ μοιχεύειν μοιχεύεις; He who says to not commit adultery, do you commit adultery? ὁ βδελυσσόμενος τὰ εἴδωλα ἱεροσυλεῖς; He who abhors idols, do you [X]? As you mentioned, there is a clear opposition between the former clause and the latter clause ...


6

This verse happens to appear in the portion of Scripture that is a key part of my dissertation. This is all my own work (and thinking through Romanides's examples helped solidify further my own take on the verse that I had previously come to). Romanides's Errors Romanides makes some errors in his argument that should be exposed. Your quote from him was as ...


5

Context and Logic Answers The context of the comparison in Romans 2 is between Jew and Gentile. The former are "under the law" and the latter "without the law" (v.12, ESV). Now consider the alternative you are questioning: For when Gentiles, who do not have the law by nature, do what the law requires... While this is a true statement, and "would ...


5

First let's do a quick exercise: Forget all the discussion and simply read this without the missing word: For their women exchanged ______ relations for those that are contrary to nature; v27 and the men likewise gave up ______ relations with women and were consumed with passion for one another. If you read it without the term "natural" you still ...


4

Great question. The short answer is that there is nothing explicit in the text of Scripture that proves without question that Paul reached Spain, but there is some evidence (both in and out of Scripture) which suggests that he did (at least to some scholars.) A couple of sources which you might find helpful are Homer A. Kent, The Pastoral Epistles, (Moody ...


4

This, from the New Bible Commentary, 2nd Edition (1954), on Mark 14:36: "Abba (36) is Aramaic for 'Father.' The addition of Pater (Father) is probably not a translation by Mark. Some think the two words together are a very early liturgical formula of address in prayer. But it is more likely that they reflect a natural prayer habit of Jesus Himself, which ...


3

The phrase is "ἐφευρετὰς κακῶν" which literally translates as 'inventors of bad/evil' and forms part of a larger catalogue of 21 vices that can be split into 3 groups as follows: a. one group of four vices (in the original each in the dat. s.), these four being introduced by the words “having become filled with every kind of”; b. one group of ...


3

There are at least three words that can designate "thing(s)" All word links below are to Liddell and Scott, A Greek-English Lexicon found online at http://www.perseus.tufts.edu. πᾶς (pas) Regarding Romans 8:28 specifically, this answer did well in noting how the neuter plural πάντα (panta) can have that idea "all things" reflected in translation. The ...


3

The heart of the problem is that the earliest manuscripts-the uncials and papyri don't have punctuation. There has got to be a comma and or period in there, but where? Murray Harris in his study of this question found that, of the 56 commentaries he consulted, 36 felt the reference was to Christ, 13 felt it was a reference to God and 7 were unsure. Harris ...


3

Apparently the Theory is not from Analysis of Pre-Extant Texts If C. Marvin Pate is correct in his Romans commentary statements (no page numbers shown in that Google Book link, but it is under the section where he discusses those verses in the commentary), then the two main reasons this becomes a question at all for this passage has nothing to do with any ...


3

Well, there is some ambiguity around the meaning of the phrase τοὺς πτωχοὺς τῶν ἁγίων, although the correct choice appears to be mostly a settled issue among modern translations and commentaries. To define our terms: τοὺς πτωχοὺς = the poor = head noun τῶν ἁγίων = the saints = genitive (in the genitive case as a reflection of its relationship with τοὺς ...


2

The context indicates that the people are still judged -- thus, some transgression must still be "charged" or "accounted" to them. Look and the verse after it: Yet death reigned from Adam to Moses [since death happened, there must be sin and transgression], even over those whose sinning was not like the transgression of Adam [Adam sinned against a specific ...


2

Interesting question: the TR(Textus Receptus) version says, "θεὸς ἐμέρισεν μέτρον πίστεως" or "God has-allotted a-measure of-faith". This would seem to suggest that the "πίστεως" of the KJV, which was translated from the TR substituted "a" for "the", confirming your suspicions about whether the 'amount of faith' measured was measured according to one's ...


2

The sources that Liddell and Scott cite for meanings other than 'glory' are all much older than the NT: Homer (7-8th century BC) Aeschylus (5th century BC) Euripides 5th century BC) Herodotus (5th century BC) Pindar (5th century BC) Demosthenes (4th century BC) Plato (4th century BC) Thucydides (4th century BC) Xenophon (4th century BC) Liddell and Scott ...


2

This is an instant where the Greek doesn't capture it's original sense in the Hebrew. In Hebrew 'kabod'(glory) originally meant 'weight'. We see this illustrated in 2 Chron. 5:14, So that the priests could not stand to minister by reason of the cloud: for the glory of the LORD had filled the house of God. In Ex. 33:22, the Lord says to Moses, ...


2

Coital vs. Non-Coital Sex: Rom.1:26-27 in Context Firstly, ‘natural relations’ is a modern, dynamic translation, and its technical meaning in theological circles may mislead. So let’s start with the usual literal translation of φυσικὴν χρῆσιν, or “natural use” (e.g. KJV, Young, Darby, Webster) in v.26b: “Females exchanged the natural use into that ...


2

In Rom.2:14, does φύσει (physis, ‘by nature’) modify backward or forward? Does Paul say, “When Gentiles, who do not have the law by birth, do what the law requires ...” Or does he say, “When Gentiles, who do not have the law, instinctively do what the law requires ...” Though both readings make sense within Paul’s argument, and though I’d like to hear ...


2

Some think Paul uses these different modes of expression randomly without any purpose. "There is no distinction as to the meaning to be sought between ἐκ πίστεως (by faith) and διὰ πίστεως (through faith,) as Paul uses both forms indiscriminately; ἐκ, for example, in 1:17, 3:20, 4:16, &c., and διά in 3:22, 25, Gal. 2:16, and sometimes first ...


1

The Idea in Brief In both passages (in Deuteronomy and Romans) the "Word of God" is what saves man. According to the Christian New Testament, this same "Word of God" was in direct reference to Jesus of Nazareth. Discussion In the Christian New Testament in Romans Chapter 10, the Apostle Paul identifies Jesus of Nazareth within the Torah, where "the ...


1

To be honest there are several possible interpretations most of which are not worth considering, therefore I will only explain the only one that seems best. The nuts and bolts of it are this: In Deut 30 Moses is saying ‘the law clearly spells out how to be righteous and is not too difficult to understand.’ One does not have to do the impossible to get what ...


1

Both English translations (proposed by the OP) appear appropriate. For example, according to the syntax graph from Wu, A., & Tan, R. (2010) in addition to the syntax graph from Lukaszewski, A. L., Dubis, M., & Blakley, T. (2011), "all Israel" (the sons of Abraham through blood relation) are not "from Israel" (the sons of Abraham through promise). ...


1

Although Paul is not specific about the "evils" he practiced, (vs 19.) we know that they were a culmination of sins that were counter to his mindful desires not to do them, but did them as a result of a mind vs. flesh struggle. To be more specific it's necessary to examine the context of Romans chapter 7. Romans chapter 7 verses 7-25 are the subject of much ...


1

In Romans 1:16, Paul says, "For I am not ashamed of the gospel, for it is the power of God for salvation to everyone who believes, to the Jew first and also to the Greek.” (Romans 1:16) This latter phrase is repeated in the immediate context of Rom 2:12 as well, "There will be tribulation and distress for every human being who does evil, the Jew first and ...


1

In Romans 1-3, Paul teaches the Gentiles without the law of Moses were guilty of sin before God and the Jews who were under the law of Moses were also guilty of sin before God concluding that all have sinned. Contextually Romans 3:28 refers to the law of Moses. Today we a justified by a system of faith that is separate from the works of the law of Moses. In ...


1

Part of Paul's intention that we may undervalue, if we view it as somewhat transcendental, is his desire to increase the praise from the earth to God, who admittedly deserves all praise. Paul lists praise to God as one desired result of this offering (2 Corinthians 9:12-13). He contrasts the world's religions with the fact that God deserves eternal praise ...



Only top voted, non community-wiki answers of a minimum length are eligible