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9

Why is “christou” translated “God” in KJV Romans 10:17? It isn't. The text base used for the KJV was primarily the 1588/89 and '98 editions of Theodore Beza, occasionally departing to follow Stephanus's 1550 Novum Testamentum. These read:1 αρα η πιστις εξ ακοης η δε ακοη δια ρηματος θεου This was correctly translated in the KJV ...the word of ...


7

There are several Greek words occasionally translated "things", but in Romans 8:28, Greek is using the adjective πᾶς (all) substantivally, that is, as a noun. In English, adjectives require an explicit noun to accompany them. In Greek, the adjective itself can represent both the attributive and the substantive component of an idea. When a Greek adjective is ...


5

The Uses All four instances of the adjective πολύς in v.15 and 19 that are used substantively to refer to "the many" people are articular masculine plural forms, three being nominative case (οἱ πολλοὶ), with the second articular version in v.15 an accusative case (τοὺς πολλοὺς) as the object of the prepositoin εἰς ("to"). Two instances of the anarthrous ...


4

I submit that there can be no fuller answer to this question than that given by Dr. Martyn Lloyd-Jones some 70 years ago in a lecture on this verse.1 He summarizes the factors to consider in making a decision on how to translate this verse, and interpret it, presents evidence from the best scholarship of the 20th Century, and a short list of theologians ...


4

Romans 10:19 But I say, did Israel not know? First Moses says: "I will provoke you to jealousy by those who are not a nation, I will move you to anger by a foolish nation." 20 But Isaiah is very bold and says: "I was found by those who did not seek Me; I was made manifest to those who did not ask for Me." 21 But to Israel he says: "All day long I have ...


4

The term "wages" builds on the earlier metaphor of man being "slaves/servants" to sin. The phrasing emphasizes the idea when we sin, we've earned death. That's your paycheck at the end of a long day of sin: Death. Verse 21 of the same chapter says this explicitly. What benefit did you reap at that time from the things you are now ashamed of? Those ...


3

It refers to the pattern of priorities for the audience's lives. First, notice where this occurs in the context of the letter. After the presentation of the kerygma in Chapters 1-11, the first two verses of Chapter 12 stand at the beginning of the "hortatory" section of the letter (12:1 - 15:13). Here the gospel message is expounded in terms of its ...


3

There are at least three words that can designate "thing(s)" All word links below are to Liddell and Scott, A Greek-English Lexicon found online at http://www.perseus.tufts.edu. πᾶς (pas) Regarding Romans 8:28 specifically, this answer did well in noting how the neuter plural πάντα (panta) can have that idea "all things" reflected in translation. The ...


3

The Greek word Αββα occurs three (3) times in three (3) verses in the Textus Receptus. Mark 14:36 καὶ ἔλεγεν Αββα ὁ πατήρ πάντα δυνατά σοι παρένεγκε τὸ ποτήριον ἀπ᾽ ἐμοῦ τοῦτο ἀλλ᾽ οὐ τί ἐγὼ θέλω ἀλλὰ τί σύ (TR, 1550) Rom. 8:15 οὐ γὰρ ἐλάβετε πνεῦμα δουλείας πάλιν εἰς φόβον ἀλλ᾽ ἐλάβετε πνεῦμα υἱοθεσίας ἐν ᾧ κράζομεν Αββα ὁ πατήρ (TR, 1550) ...


3

Let's follow the context: Chapter 5: when there is no commandment to break, nothing has been broken. Sin has not been "committed." But death in the world was evidence that sin has existed (and remains) since Adam. After comparing Jesus with Adam 5 times, he introduces the real purpose of the law: an instrument to magnify, for us, the reality of sin. But ...


2

The OP is right - it appears Matthew 7:22 implies: Those who have invoked the power of God for prophecy, exorcism and miracles may still be condemned on the day of Judgement. And from that one can conclude... Therefore, NO assurance of salvation can be given, even when invoking the powerful name of Jesus Christ. And even more scandalous in ...


2

In general different words are used to convey different meanings: Children (τέκνα) The Spirit itself beareth witness with our spirit, that we are the children (τέκνα) of God. (Romans 8:16 KJV) That is, They which are the children (τέκνα) of the flesh, these are not the children (τέκνα) of God: but the children (τέκνα) of the promise are ...


2

Before we compare the two verses, we should first determine the original message and context given when they were written. » [1 Timothy 2: 9-16] (NASB) 9 - Likewise, I want women to adorn themselves with proper clothing, modestly and discreetly, not with braided hair and gold or pearls or costly garments, 10 - but rather by means of good works, as is proper ...


2

Paul is actually making the exact same point as John 14:6, he just takes a while to get there. If you look at the first part of Romans, Paul is building a case towards that is well summarized by Romans 3:23: "for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God". He starts by breaking the world into two groups: Those with the law and those without the ...


2

διὰ It can be a fool's game to hang Greek translations on prepositions, as the range of meaning is different from English and so we don't naturally read words in their intended range. But at least we have clues in this text to help us get started on the meaning of διὰ. Fortunately this sentence uses the term twice, such that 'we were buried διὰ baptism ...


2

As Dick Harfield mentioned, the text does not provide or lead toward an answer through hermeneutics. By exploring your second question regarding "due penalty," however, there are some verses to consider in order to hopefully bring better clarity to what you are seeking. "Due penalty" can very well refer to venereal diseases. On a deeper level as well as ...


1

The literary picture within the Christian New Testament indicates that the Glory of the Father is the divine power of the Holy Spirit, by whom the Father raised Jesus Christ from the dead (Gal 1:1). For example, this phase “by the glory of the Father” (διὰ τῆς δόξης τοῦ πατρός) appears parallel in meaning to what Jesus told Mary and Martha in the following ...


1

Not sure what commentaries you looked at. But you're in good company with Calvin, who seems to indicate a clear temporal sense in the phrase "from faith unto faith": The more our knowledge of true religion increases, we see the grace of God with greater clarity and more familiarity, as though He were coming nearer to us. ... [This phrase] marks the daily ...


1

To me, the Epistle to the Romans is a job application, albeit an unsolicited one. Paul spends the first chapter winning the trust of the Romans, assuring them that he would fit into their group. Paul begins with a lengthy opening address no doubt designed to impress the Roman Christians that he was, at the same time, sincere and unassuming, and that his ...


1

Romans 5:15 (KJV) But not as the offence, so also is the free gift. For if through the offence of one many (1. G4183 masculine, singular) be dead, much (2. G4183 neuter, singular) more the grace of God, and the gift by grace, which is by one man, Jesus Christ, hath abounded unto many. (3. G4183 masculine, plural) In this verse the Greek adjective, ...


1

This question is very difficult to answer without entering into the realm of theology about the sovereignty of God. It is important to remember that Paul held philosophical and theological views that contradict those that modern Americans hold. The English texts use the word all(Greek παντα). To my knowledge there are no other instances where "παντα" is ...


1

NRSV Rom. 11:11   So I ask, have they stumbled so as to fall? By no means! But through their stumbling salvation has come to the Gentiles, so as to make Israel jealous. 12 Now if their stumbling means riches for the world, and if their defeat means riches for Gentiles, how much more will their full inclusion mean! NRSV Rom. 11:13   Now I am ...


1

There is a distinction. The Spirit Himself witnesses with our spirit that we are children of God (Rom. 8:16; cf. John 1:12). The Spirit witnesses to our most elementary relationship with God, that is, that we are His children; it does not witness that we are His sons or His heirs. The fact that the "begetting" Father wants His children to grow unto ...


1

In the salutation at the beginning of his letter to the Romans, Paul wants to make clear his qualification to expound the gospel. Therefore, the "we" in verse 5 is tied to his apostleship & the grace he has received. He links both to the "resurrection of Jesus Christ our Lord" as well as the foundations of holy Scripture & the prophets. Then you ...


1

Short and simple answer. Eve was deceived by implication Adam wasn't. He did it knowing it was sin. So knowing he was sinning he entered into sin and condemned all mankind. If you have two children who do something wrong but one of them knew better but the other was just tricked into it, who is usually punished or blamed by the parent for the disobedience?


1

Sanday and Hedlam1 say that this "law" means The Law, as in the Pentateuch, not as an isolated Book, but as the most conspicuous and representative expression of that great system of Law which prevailed everywhere until the coming of Christ. ¶ The Jew looked at the O.T., and he saw there the Law, Obedience to Law or Works, Circumcision, Descent from ...


1

At the root of the punctuation problem in Romans 9:5 is the notion of "the nature of God", and those who struggle with a rational understanding of how God is constituted can't help but get hung up on the placement of the commas. Paul, of course, had no problem with the nature of God, which is why he can tell us in Ephesians 2 that grace is the gift of God, ...


1

Short Answer: Being "allotted a measure of faith" is just another way of saying that you've been "given a particular function in the Church". This is a great question. I think you were on the right track when you asked whether verse 3 is connected to verse 4. Yes it is! When seeking to understand a confusing verse, step 1 should always be to read it in ...


1

Aramaic is a Semitic language ala Hebrew and Arabic. In fact it could be considered a dialect of Hebrew though it is different enough to be considered its own language, much like the Romantic languages that branched off of Latin: http://jewishencyclopedia.com/articles/1707-aramaic-language-among-the-jews "Abba" means "my father" which was more useful for ...


1

Romans 6:7 ὁ γὰρ ἀποθανὼν δεδικαίωται ἀπὸ τῆς ἁμαρτίας. (Rom 6:7 BGT) The verb δικαιόω doesn't simply mean 'justified' it has the sense of being vindicated or been proven innocent. Certain lexicons point out that when the verb is in the passive voice it has the sense of being acquitted or freed from a court of law. See from example the entry in Gingrich: ...



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