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Why is “christou” translated “God” in KJV Romans 10:17? It isn't. The text base used for the KJV was primarily the 1588/89 and '98 editions of Theodore Beza, occasionally departing to follow Stephanus's 1550 Novum Testamentum. These read:1 αρα η πιστις εξ ακοης η δε ακοη δια ρηματος θεου This was correctly translated in the KJV ...the word of ...


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Romans 6:7 ὁ γὰρ ἀποθανὼν δεδικαίωται ἀπὸ τῆς ἁμαρτίας. (Rom 6:7 BGT) The verb δικαιόω doesn't simply mean 'justified' it has the sense of being vindicated or been proven innocent. Certain lexicons point out that when the verb is in the passive voice it has the sense of being acquitted or freed from a court of law. See from example the entry in Gingrich: ...



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